Dear Jovial,

 

In your post from yesterday:

 

http://www.fivedoves.com/letters/march2013/jovial325-2.htm

 

You stated the following:

 

“…by promoting the validity of Malachy, they are really making an argument in favor of all of us converting to Catholicism.”

 

Are you serious?  Do you really believe that promoting the validity of Malachy is the same as making an argument in favor of all of us converting to Catholicism?  How so?

 

If God used Malachy for prophecy (which I am NOT saying He did), are you therefore saying that it was done this way in order to convert us all to Catholicism IF it were true.  That is like saying that Nebuchadnezzar being proved to being right in his dreams is like attempting to convert us all to “Babylonian”-ism.

 

I usually enjoy reading your opinions, but I really felt you were being a bit facetious on this one.  You should be careful at the stones you throw – we ALL live in glass houses, including you.

 

I am certainly no fan of Catholicism (opposite actually), but this doesn’t have to permeate your views on a separate discussion on Malachy like it APPEARS you have.  As per usual, just my opinion.

 

YbiC, MathMan