Why did Jesus specify the people in Judaea?

Matthew 24:15 When ye therefore shall see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel the prophet, stand in the holy place, (whoso readeth, let him understand:)

  16 Then let them which be in Judaea flee into the mountains:

Mark 13:14 But when ye shall see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel the prophet, standing where it ought not, (let him that readeth understand,) then let them that be in Judaea flee to the mountains:

Clearly Jesus is speaking about something in the future, after the temple would be destroyed in 70 AD, yet rebuilt sometime much later, like after 2,000 years.

So, those in Judaea will be living there again, after the long diaspora.

To attempt to circumvent the UN's attempt to forcibly install a palestinian state in the heart of Israel, there are some there speaking of the need to first annex Judea and Samaria.

Will this be a sticking point with the world, driving them to want to physically install what they imagine as a palestinian state, even to sending in troops?

If so, the people there won't need to flee when the 3rd temple is first built, nor for when the antichrist first comes on the scene.

But, apparently, when he places the abomination of desolation, everything changes.

Yet, it doesn't say the people living in the areas of where Haifa, Nazareth, or Tel Aviv, are to flee, but only those in Judaea.

So, was Jesus referring to the area called Judaea during the time of his ministry?

Or was he referring to the area called Judea at the time of the third temple?