What's the difference in the experience of born again Christians in heaven before the blessed hope, compared to after the blessed hope?

One difference is that before the blessed hope, Christians in heaven won't have resurrected bodies yet.

But what are the other differences?

Did John get to see and hear what it will be like for Christians after the blessed hope, in Revelation chapters 4 and 5?

If so, then he was allowed to write about it for us to read.

However, if Paul was referring to himself in II Corinthians 12, about before the blessed hope:

II Corinthians 12:1 It is not expedient for me doubtless to glory. I will come to visions and revelations of the Lord.

  2 I knew a man in Christ above fourteen years ago, (whether in the body, I cannot tell; or whether out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth;) such an one caught up to the third heaven.

  3 And I knew such a man, (whether in the body, or out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth;)

  4 How that he was caught up into paradise, and heard unspeakable words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter.

Then it was not lawful to utter what was heard.

Did the rules change? Or is John describing after the blessed hope, but Paul refers to before the blessed hope?

If the latter is true, then the experience of Christians in heaven, before the blessed hope, is for the most part, kept secret.

However, there are not somethings that can be understood?

John 14:2 In my Father’s house are many mansions: if it were not so, I would have told you. I go to prepare a place for you.

The place is prepared, by Jesus, for the Christians.

Now, some would say that Jesus is only referring to "after the blessed hope", because of the next line:

  3 And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again, and receive you unto myself; that where I am, there ye may be also.

They would say that because of that, it gives no information for Christians in heaven before the blessed hope.

If that is so, then please skip the following section:

Jesus said there are many mansions

(there are some linguistically enhanced scholars that say it should be many rooms, not many mansions)

(however, I'd rather avoid that Motel 6 translation)

The word mansion brings to mind the best of places to dwell, not unlike a royal palace.

A mansion brings to mind: beautiful, colorful, spacious, decorated, furnished, different places for different activities,

all that someone could want, in order to enjoy, and, much, much more.

Those disciples hearing that, in the upper room, have been there with Jesus, while nearly 2,000 years has passed by, here on earth.

And all that for someone who doesn't yet have a resurrected body.

** If the above is to be skipped, then skip to here:

But, a soul, without the body, can experience things, as Jesus himself mentioned:

Luke 16:22 And it came to pass, that the beggar died, and was carried by the angels into Abraham’s bosom: the rich man also died, and was buried;

  23 And in hell he lift up his eyes, being in torments, and seeth Abraham afar off, and Lazarus in his bosom.

  24 And he cried and said, Father Abraham, have mercy on me, and send Lazarus, that he may dip the tip of his finger in water, and cool my tongue; for I am tormented in this flame.

At that point, neither Abraham, Lazarus, nor the rich man were resurrected, yet.

In their souls, Lazarus was experiencing fellowship, while the rich man was experiencing torment.

Of course, the linguistically enhanced scholars would say that Abraham & Lazarus were still in the "good side of hell":

(they would call it "hades" rather than "hell", which of course takes the sting off)

(and they would say that the "good side of hell" was still confined down, very deep, into the lower bowels of the earth)

(isn't that where mythical balrogs supposedly were,  also?)

Would they say, that because of this, and that Lazarus and Abraham were not Christians at that point, that we cannot use them as an example?

Okay, scratch that, then.

Yet, did not Paul say the following?

II Corinthians 5:8 We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Lord.

Whatever the experience will be for Christians before the blessed hope, it is about being present with the Lord.

Will that be like close, intimate fellowship, not unlike what the disciples had with Jesus in the upper room?

Then, didn't Paul also say the following?

Philippians 1:21 For to me to live is Christ, and to die is gain.

  22 But if I live in the flesh, this is the fruit of my labour: yet what I shall choose I wot not.

  23 For I am in a strait betwixt two, having a desire to depart, and to be with Christ; which is far better:

Whatever that experience will be for Christians in heaven before the blessed hope, it will be gain.

It will be far better than anything experienced while the Christian is still alive, in their body, before they pass.

Paul says that it is to be with Christ.

Again, does that imply close intimate fellowship with Jesus?

There may be many other things that I haven't mentioned here.

However, I'm sure it is NOT the soul, snoring in a coffin, trapped in a premature burial, that some people advocate.

Please help me to understand what the difference will be for a Christian in heaven, before and after the blessed hope.

.