Dear John,

 

Gary B writes about Proving Scripture with Scripture:

"You can readily see that the TWO Scriptures cites above are BOTH speaking about the SAME EVENT, 

which is our Lord Jesus, in "THE FULLNESS OF TIMES", act of "GATHERING TOGETHER" ,

 ie.  resurrection & rapture, of  "HIS ELECT" SAINTS FROM ONE END OF HEAVEN TO THE OTHER,

and "HIS ELECT" SAINTS FROM THE FOUR WINDS OF EARTH "IN ONE" Body of Christ Church

to be  resurrected & raptured to heaven. 

 

I agree to this

 

Then: This resurrection & rapture event comes, "IMMEDIATELY  AFTER THE TRIBULATION OF THOSE DAYS"

( Matthew 24:29 ) which are "THOSE DAYS"  of God's  tribulation exclusively upon the Nation of Israel,

aka the Gog-Magog War which occurs IMMEDIATELY  BEFORE THE RAPTURE OF THE CHURCH .

God's tribulation upon THE WHOLE WORLD WILL BEGIN IMMEDIATELY AFTER

THE RESURRECTION & RAPTURE of His Church.

 

My Question: If the rapture comes immediately after the tribulation of those days (Matthew 24:29)

where Gary means: God’s tribulation exclusively upon the Nation of Israël;

How can God’s tribulation upon  the

whole world  begin AFTER the tribulation upon Israël???

Since Matthew  24:29 clearly states that this IS the end of the world.

Jesus says that in Matthew 24:3, when the disciples ask: “What will be the sign of your coming

and THE END of the world???

Matthew 24:29-31 is for the WHOLE WORLD, INCLUSIVE ISRAEL!

 

God bless you in your ministry,

Caspar V.

L.S. Please add enclosure Romans 11:26

1E-ROMANS 11 VERSE 26.pdf