Steve Coerper (3 Oct 2012)
"Re: "The RAPTURE will not occur until (after) these two things (have already happened) ...""

 
http://www.fivedoves.com/letters/oct2012/dwz102-2.htm
Dear David and Doves -
 
The nonsense comes from a misquote, or a misunderstanding of the scripture.  Paul said,
Let no one deceive you by any means; for [that Day will not come] unless the falling away comes first, and the man of sin is revealed, the son of perdition, -(2 Thess. 2:3)
In other words, if the KJV translators got it right, Paul was telling the Thessalonians that the Day of Christ (NU-Text reads the Lord) would not begin until the "falling away" came and the man of sin is revealed.  The sequence is:
1.  "Falling away",
2.  Revealing of the man of sin/son of perdition,
3.  Day of Christ.
If by "falling away" Paul meant a widespread departure from the faith, we've seen that already and it will probably get worse.  If Paul meant the rapture, he was saying the rapture and the revelation of the last-days Antichrist would precede the Day of Christ.  Since the Day of the Lord is well known to be the time God's wrath is poured out on the planet, and we are not appointed unto wrath, it makes sense that we would be removed before the Day of the Lord.
 
In any event, the phrase "that Day" refers to the Day of wrath, not the day of the Rapture.  We never read of the "Day of Rapture" because the rapture occurs in a moment, in the twinkling of an eye.  It's an instantaneous event, not a process.
 
Best,
 
Steve
Anakypto Forum