Steve Coerper (29 Oct 2012)
"re:  "Do the Rich have a moral obligation to pay higher taxes?""

 
http://www.fivedoves.com/letters/oct2012/randy1027-4.htm

Dear Randy -

You are thinking along the lines of Marx, who postulated "From each according to his ability, to each according to his needs."   Sounds good until you realize it's enforced with guns, and millions of people were murdered by the government that resulted.

There is no Biblical example of rich people being REQUIRED to give more than others simply because they are rich.  In America, the presumption used to be that if people work harder and work smarter, they are entitled to the fruits of their labor. 

In ancient Israel, there was no "income tax" but there were gifts and offerings to the Lord.  In Exodus 30:15 we read:
The rich shall not give more and the poor shall not give less than half a shekel, when you give an offering to the LORD, to make atonement for yourselves.
Our government has neither the legal nor the moral authority to be a "welfare agency" and use the power of the sword to take property from people just because they have it and give some of that property to people that bureaucrats think "deserve" it just because they may need it.  Agreeing that the "rich" should pay more just because they are rich is agreeing with the institutional violation of the 8th commandment, which states "Thou shalt NOT steal."  If I, using deadly force or the threat of deadly force, took money from you and gave it to your unemployed neighbor just because I determined that you are "rich" (because you work) and he is "poor" (because he is unemployed for what-ever reason) would be THEFT.  To say it's "compassion" because the government is effecting the transfer is simply delusional.  To say it's "moral" or "Biblical" is a serious error.

Best,

Steve
Anakypto Forum