RE: Gary B (7 Nov 2021) ‘AT THE END OF’
THE 69th WEEK OR “AFTER” THE END OF THE 69th
WEEK ?”
Gary: The
first question, again, is when do you think the 69th
week ended? Before you can discuss whether
Jesus was cutoff “at the end of the 69th
week” or “after the 69th week, you must
state “when the 69th week ended. This is
a foundational question. So, I ask you again, when
did the 69th week end? I stated my
position was that the 69th week ended on Nisan
10 in or about A.D. 30. The end of the 69th
week necessarily suspended “the covenant”. The
reason why must be obvious, the nation of Israel rejected
and murdered their Messiah, therefore God suspended His
promises to Israel’s fathers…until Hosea 5:15.. [when]
they admit their guilt and seek My face; in their
affliction they will earnestly seek Me.” Then God
will bring them into the “bond of the covenant” just as He
prophesied in Ezekiel 20:37. This bonded covenant is
the covenant supported by the “oath of God”. Genesis
22:16; 1 Chronicles 16:16-17; Psalm 105:9-10. This
promise is always characterized by the verb “confirm”.
Did you know that Daniel 9:27 is the 22,016th
bible verse. It it a coincidence that the “confirmed
covenant began in Genesis 22:16. Read the words God
used. His bonded covenant is “the confirmed
covenant” of verse 27. It must be restored by
confirmation at the beginning of the 70th week
when God yet again enters into a covenant relationship
with His remnant, future Messianic Jews of Daniel’s 70th
week. The church age, the age of Pentecost exists in
this gap period. It is God’s timeout in His
redemptive game. God gave away the Kingdom of God to
a people who would produce spiritual fruit. (Matthew
21:43)
I made a quick
search of my KJB and the phrase “at the end of” appears 28
times, 5 in Daniel as you stated. This phrase is set
in the context of “time”. Of those 28 verse, 20 are
used in the context of time. For example, the first
appearance of the phrase is used in Genesis 8:6 which
states: “And it came to pass at the end of forty days,
that Noah opened the window of the ark which he had
made;” There are 19 other similar uses always
measuring the end of specific time.
What day is the “end
of forty days”, “at the end of two full years”, or “at the
end of 430 years”? Is it the last day, hour or
second of the last day? Or is it the beginning of
the 41st day, the third full year, or the first
day of the 431st year. I would argue that
the “at the end of a time is the “selfsame” day or the day
a time related event took place whether the first or last
day. Look up the usage of “selfsame day”. It
appears 15 time in the KJB.
By implication we
can say that Jesus was cut off “after the end of the 69th
week”. The word “after” means the time following an
event or other period of time. After the 69th
week means following the end of the 69th week
with no limitation on the amount of time intended by the
writer, but usually before the next period of time or
event.
God in Christ, has
no trouble with language. Ambiguity is not His
intended use in the context of Daniel’s prophecy.
His words are true. Does after the 69th
week mean in the 70th week. Yes, if you
do not subscribe to God’s uses of gaps in time. 70th
necessarily follows the 69th. But there
is a fundamental problem. If Jesus was crucified and
resurrected “in the midst of the [70th ] week”,
then when did “the people of the prince” destroy the
Temple and Jerusalem? In the midst of the 70th
week, or in the gap period? We know the Temple and a
good portion of Jerusalem was destroyed by the conscripted
Roman army led by Titus, the prince of Rome.
If Jesus was crucified and resurrected “in the midst” of
the 70th week, then that period of time would
have been in the 30’s A.D. and the Verse 26 prophecy
of the Temple destruction and desolation of Jerusalem
would have occurred after the 70th week or
outside of the prophecy time period.
If God in Christ
wanted to say that Jesus was “cut off” in the midst of the
70th week, why did He not say so? In
verse 27 He uses the phrase “in the midst” [of the 70th
week], but only in the context of the sacrifices and
oblations which have been proven by Scripture to
contradict your “sin offering” interpretation of the
zebach and minchah offerings. There is no discussion
of the chatah sin offerings in verse 27. Your
argument for “in the midst” of the 70th week
fails to support a mid-70th week “cutting off”
of Messiah Christ. Messiah was not cutoff in the
midst of the 70th week because there is no sin
offering in the midst of the 70th week.
There is a gap and you are living in it with the rest of
us who await His glorious appearance.
You should read a
short book written by Tim Morton on Dispensational
Theology. https://www.amazon.com/Difference-Dispensations-Sense-Differences-Bible/dp/145641299X
It is about a 100 pp. and is very instructive. In
fact, you are not far away from great understanding of
God’s redemptive plans. As you have corrected
observed by your diligent searching and study of the
Scriptures of Truth, the Jewish nature of the four
Gospels. They were doctrinally written for Jews, but
of great value to Gentiles.
God in Christ has
plans for those rebels in Israel (Ezekiel 20:34-38).
He will refine and extract His inheritance from the future
Remnant Israel. It fascinates me that these 27th
verses so often speak to Israel’s future national
redemption. Daniel 9:27, Romans 9:27, Romans
11:27. Something very interesting.
Garry B (7 Nov 2021)
"'AT THE END OF' THE 69th WEEK OR
"AFTER" THE END OF THE 69th WEEK ?"
WAS JESUS "CUT OFF" AT THE
END OF THE 69th WEEK OF DANIEL OR "AFTER" THE END
OF THE 69th WEEK OF DANIEL ?
Daniel
9:26 states, "AFTER three
score and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off"
The
question is : How long AFTER the 69th
week of Daniel was Messiah cut off ? Was it AT
THE END OF the 69th week thus leaving the
entire 70th week left to be fulfilled , OR was
it AFTER THE END OF the 69th
week which would then mean that Messiah was "cut off"
sometime during the week following the 69th week ,
ie. the 70th week ?
The
phrase , "AT THE END OF" is used a total of
twenty-eight ( 28 ) times in ALL of the Scriptures.
Of those ( 28 ) times Daniel used
it IN THE BOOK OF DANIEL FIVE ( 5 ) TIMES.
Yes, that's right, no less than five ( 5 ) times.
Daniel DID NOT use the phrase AT THE END
OF in Daniel 9:26 because he DID NOT
want to convey that Jesus was "cut off" AT THE
END OF the 69th week.
SO,
THERE YOU HAVE IT:
Daniel
9:25 tells us that Jesus was cut off "AFTER" the 69th
week , and Daniel 9:27 tells us HOW LONG
"AFTER" the 69th week that Jesus was cut
off which was "in the midst of the week" following
the 69th week , ie. the 70th week of Daniel.
According to
Your Holy Word , come Lord Jesus !