Is it possible that the book of Revelation was written for these days, as well as for the day that it was written down?

I realize that may seem like, "Duh! Gino, that's a no-brainer".

What I'm think about is one particular line.

Church history has that the book was first written down in Koine Greek, which people aren't really speaking anymore.

So, this line would have been written in Koine Greek, and first read by people in Koine Greek:

Revelation 9:11 And they had a king over them, which is the angel of the bottomless pit, whose name in the Hebrew tongue is Abaddon, but in the Greek tongue hath his name Apollyon.

Now, if I wrote a letter to FiveDoves, and started out by saying something like:

"Good day (which in English would be 'Good day')"

That would sound rather redundant, and wouldn't be necessary.

I wouldn't need to tell you what "Good day" would be in English, if I'm already writing it in English.

All I would need to do is to simply write, "Good day".

So, if Revelation 9:11 was written in Greek, why say what the name would be in Greek, if the writing is already in Greek?

Is it possible, that this line was written in such a way, that it is expected that it will be read in another language, beside Greek?

If that is the case, then I'm guessing that the first century Greek readers were not the ones that really needed to know this.

The angel of the bottomless pit apparently didn't come up in their day, nor yet for the next 1900 years.

However, there will be a day when this will happen.

The people alive at that time, reading the book of Revelation, will really need to know this.

So, is it possible that it is written in such a way, that it will be clearly understood by those people?

Of course, even then, the understanding of these words can only be given by the Holy Ghost.

There are clues therein for those people, which we may see, but they won't necessarily identify the angel until his time.

1) He is the king over the locusts which come out of the smoke that arose out of the bottomless pit.

Locusts do not have kings:

Proverbs 30:27 The locusts have no king, yet go they forth all of them by bands;

But these locusts do have a king

2) This king is an angel:

How many angels are kings?

I can only think of two situations, one good, and the other, bad.

The good would be an old testament Christophany (Theophany) as the angel of the LORD, the Lord is King

The bad would be the devil:

who transforms into an angel of light, and is typified by Leviathan, king over all the children of pride

3) This angel is the angel of the bottomless pit:

Is that because he is from there, or is it his domain, or is it his own place, or is he simply associated with it?

4) His name is not secret, like the angel of the LORD that Manoah spoke to, or the angel that wrestled with Jacob.

5) His name is given in both Hebrew and Greek, and in no other language

The Latin Vulgate "adds" the following to the scriptures:

"latine habens nomen Exterminans"

Which would be better, as a logo, on the side of a Terminix or Orkin truck, but not to be "added" to the scriptures!

6) Some names, like Abraham, may be pronounced differently in Hebrew and Greek,

but this appears to have been translated differently:

The name of this angel appears to have been translated into Hebrew and Greek - why?

Is his name known in some other language, but needed to be translated into Hebrew and Greek?

Why would his name be translated rather than transliterated?

Is it related to an old / new testament situation, or to a Jew / Gentile situation?

Was he known in old testament times by the one name, but known to the Greek speaking world by the other name?

How and why would this information be helpful to the people reading this in the day when it happens?