David (7 Nov 2012)
"Re: my question on rapture, 11/3/12"



Thank you for the responses to my question on the rapture.

What was very interesting in your responses was that each of you made the point that Matthew 24 pertained to only Israel. One said these events were fulfilled in 70 ad, with the destruction of the temple. while others said that It was in reference to the final seven year period in the abscence of the church.

What is missing however is what Paul wrote to the "CHURCH" in Thessalonica, which stated that "coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and our being gathered together to him", which is preceded by the rebellion, The revealing of the Lawless one, and the Abomination spoken of by Daniel.

What this means to me, is that we have one of several possibilities here:

1. 2 Thess. 2 and mathew 24 are refering to 70 ad destruction of the temple, which was preceded by a rebellion (against rome), and an abomination, (which we had then). (Basically what Eric Henry wrote) This would also mean that the Gathering spoken of in verse 1 was in reference to the rapture, which occured shortly thereafter, which it did not. ("The coming of our Lord Jesus Christ" did not occur then) [Note this possibility is still viable with regard to 2 peter 3:8-9, but two millenial days would put us to 2070 ad...]

2. 2 Thess. 2 and Mathew 24 are referring the same events as found in revelation 13 (mark of the beast). This is what most Mid trib, pre wrath people believe. This then means the whole church will go through these events. [again a valid point]
 
3. Or as my question posed, The "end of the Age" and the "day of the Lord" are different time periods. Hear me out on this, as it is far from "traditional interpretation".
I will not put dates and times, on this, but I do have some. I strongly believe that we are IN the "end of the Age." and that this is then followed immediately by the "coming of our Lord Jesus Christ". The day of the Lord is described in two ways in the Bible. As a "thief in the night", and "as the Lord descending from heaven with a shout". (1 thess. 4:16-5:4.) To those who are believers, the Latter is true, to those who have fallen victim to the strong delusion, the former is true. To those whom it comes as a "thief in the night", It will seem as if nothing happened (Note references to peace and security, and "as in the days of Noah") Well what is it that immediately preceded the flood? Seven days of NOTHING, Life as usual...Noah and his family sealed in the ark. Theoretically, then, should we not conclude that we will have seven years of nothing, while the church has been raptured, So that the wicked will believe "what is false", thereby filling up their cup with the wrath of God?
    So to put it differently, The tribulation and all its component parts, including the great tribulation, the two witnesses etc are all pre rapture events, while the seven year day of the Lord's wrath, are separate and distinct time periods.
What this means, is that Pre trib rapture people are right, in that we will be rescued from his wrath, and the final seven year period. Pre Wrathers/mid tribbers are right in that the rapture will occur after the abomination/, at or around the sixth seal/sixth trumpet, And the Post tribbers are right, in that the rapture is after the tribulation, and then the day of Judgement.
    Could it be possible, and is there enough humility in the body of Christ, and the seven churches, to understand that we each hold a piece of the puzzle? Or that until we can set aside our pride and receive what each other holds, we cannot see the whole picture?
 
I do not have the whole picture figured out. This is why I pose the question to you. I appreciate the time you took to respond to this. Your points are all valid, and each has a blessing and truth on it own. But the Body of Christ has many members, and when they work in union with one another, the Will of the Lord is done on earth as it is in heaven. Amen.
 
Thank you again, I will watch for replies, and respond accordingly.