I have often wondered why Matthew 24:38-42 is not one of the main verses that pre-tribulation followers use to win the argument with post-tribbers.  So maybe my logic if flawed. Would someone tell me if my theory makes sense?

First here are the verses -

Matthew 38-42

For as in the days before the flood, they were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage, until the day that Noah entered the ark, ³⁹ and did not know until the flood came and took them all away, so also will the coming of the Son of Man be. ⁴⁰ Then two men will be in the field: one will be taken and the other left. ⁴¹ Two women will be grinding at the mill: one will be taken and the other left. ⁴² Watch therefore, for you do not know what hour your Lord is coming.

I started in verse 38 to show that we ARE talking about Jesus coming back and rapturing people.

My big point is, HOW could this be a post-trib set of verses?  If this was post-trib, then the mark of the beast has already been completed. The process of marking people is done. So if two people are working together and one is taken (raptured) and one is left - then the left person would have the mark of the beast..

So if this is at the end of the tribulation, no sane follower of Christ is going to get anywhere near a person with the mark of the beast.

And any person with the mark of the beast would not work beside someone without the mark. Instead, the person with the mark would immediately go and find some authorities and turn in a person without the mark of the beast.

Soooooo those two groups are not going to be working side by side. 

What am I missing here?

I've always wondered why I've never heard anyone use this verse to try to prove that this is a pre-trib rapture verse and therefore, the rapture is pre-trib.

Is there a major flaw in my reasoning?

I've been wondering about this for years. Maybe nobody uses this as a pre-trib argument because there is a flaw in my reasoning.

Would someone respond and give me their opinion?

THANKS!

Love to all Doves,

Mary