Patti C (30 July 2013)
"TWO KINGDOMS PART 2 ( response to Sandra Jean)"

TWO KINGDOMS PART 2 (Response to Sandra Jean)
(RE: Sandra Jean (26 July 2013)
Hello Sandra Jean and all Doves,
Again, let me say how nice it is to reply to someone who has actually done a study on this subject and is supporting it with the Word of God. I so appreciate it when that happens, it just shows respect and gives ones the foundation to respond, in kind. A great deal of hard work goes into doing an in depth study, and if someone disagrees with one's findings, they should take the time to at least look into it for themselves and prove their position. Thanks for doing just that!!
In order not to make this too long and confusing, I am going to address your questions entirely without going back and forth from your words to mine. Therefore, I have included your letter at the end of this study so that anyone can see what you were asking and what your study included. Let me add here, that the two Bible studies you suggested at the end of your letter are two that I studied before writing my study. They are very good, and almost convinced me that they were the same, which was my initial take on the subject. Yet, upon further study and much deliberation, I found that is just not the case.
When you, Sandra Jean, say that both are the same, are you saying they are both a spiritual kingdom, or are you saying they are both a physical kingdom? For the purpose of this response I am going to assume that you see them both as a spiritual kingdom. I want to establish that both are mutually exclusive, in that, you cannot have one without the other. You must enter the spiritual kingdom of God, by being born again, in order to enter the literal Kingdom of Heaven.
You are right, there are many good studies that seem to prove that they are the same, especially in regard to the Gospel of Matthew, as it was considered the Gospel to the Jews and Jesus seems to have substituted the word "heaven" for the word "God" as not to offend them. But, I feel, and will attempt to show, that this is not the whole of the picture. Did Jesus ever say that the Kingdom of Heaven is "inside you"? No, only when Jesus spoke of the Kingdom of God did He say it was "inside you".
With that in mind, let me now address the question you asked about when Jesus uses both phrases in the same teaching.
Then Jesus said to His disciples, "I tell you the truth, it is hard for a rich man to enter the Kingdom of Heaven. Again I tell you, it is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle than for a rich man to enter the Kingdom of God." (Matthew 19:23-24).
This is interesting that Jesus used the two phrases in the same verses in Matthew, but when the exact verses are quoted in Mark, both use phrase Kingdom of God, only.
Mar 10:24 "And the disciples were astonished at his words. But Jesus answereth again, and saith unto them, Children, how hard is it for them that trust in riches to enter into the kingdom of God! "
Mar 10:25 It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God.
I think this is because the Jews were expecting a literal kingdom, and Jesus made an interesting comparison here in these verses that would tell them that they would not receive the Kingdom of Heaven until they received the Kingdom of God. But because the Jews rejected Him, He had this to say:
Mat 21:43 "Therefore say I unto you, The kingdom of God shall be taken from you, and given to a nation bringing forth the fruits thereof." (the fruits of the Holy Spirit).
Back to Matt. 19:23-24 and your question about what Christ meant.  In this instance, Jesus is saying that a rich man will find it very difficult to enter either kingdom. He will not give up reliance on his riches and therefore will not enter the Kingdom of Heaven because it is near impossible for him to die to self and enter the Kingdom of God. If he cannot, without great difficulty, enter the Kingdom of God, he will never enter the Kingdom of Heaven. This example seems to support the idea that they are two different kingdoms instead of prove they are the same, and emphases the extreme importance of being born again, and first entering the Kingdom of God. Jesus does not say it is impossible for a rich man to be born again, nor does he say it is impossible for him to enter the kingdom of heaven, it will just be very difficult. The camel going through the eye of a needle does seem impossible, but what Jesus is saying is that trying to fit a camel through the gate of the temple that was very narrow, and thus called the eye of the needle, was very difficult, but not impossible. Remember Jesus said this:
Mat 6:33 " But seek ye first the kingdom of God, and his righteousness; and all these things shall be added unto you. "
Right there He is telling us that the Kingdom of God must be entered first and foremost!! One cannot be with Him in His literal kingdom and 1000 rule, without being born again. There is no entering the Kingdom of Heaven without first entering the Kingdom of God.
(I would just like to mention here that the only version of the Holy Bible that I trust is the King James Version.....not the NKJV or any other. You said you searched many different versions of the Bible as if that would make an impact to the study, but to me they are all corrupt and therefore not valid in answering this question either way. But that is another study.)
With that being said, and with that in mind, let me point to a good example of some versions of the Holy Bible removing important words that do make a difference to our understanding of the meaning of certain verses. Here is a good example pertaining to this study. This occurs in John 18:36; when the very important word "now" is taken out or changed altogether.
"Jesus answered, My kingdom is not of this world: if my kingdom were of this world, then would my servants fight, that I should not be delivered to the Jews: but now is my kingdom not from hence." (John 18:36 KJV)
Jhn 18:36 Jesus answered, "My Kingdom is not an earthly kingdom. If it were, my followers would fight to keep me from being handed over to the Jewish leaders. But my Kingdom is not of this world.
Jhn 18:36 Jesus answered, "My kingdom is not of this world. If my kingdom were of this world, my servants would have been fighting, that I might not be delivered over to the Jews. But my kingdom is not from the world."
Jhn 18:36 Jesus answered, "My kingship is not of this world; if my kingship were of this world, my servants would fight, that I might not be handed over to the Jews; but my kingship is not from the world."
Jhn 18:36 Jesus said, "My kingdom is not of this world. If it were, my servants would fight to prevent my arrest by the Jewish leaders. But now my kingdom is from another place."
From the KJV we can plainly see that Jesus is telling his disciples that His literal 1000 year rule is not here at present (now), at the time that He was answering them about the literal Kingdom of Heaven. With that simple word, He was telling them that it would come someday, but until it did, to preach the Kingdom of God to the whole world.....the spiritual kingdom that must be entered before anyone enters the literal kingdom. By changing that word, or removing it altogether, makes a big difference in how that teaching is interrupted. Jesus is saying that right now my kingdom is not of this world, but it will be, and these versions are saying that His literal Kingdom will not be on earth but some other place. That is very misleading and is not true.
Now, I would like to address the John the Baptist issue....if the Kingdom of God and Kingdom of Heaven are the same how could this statement, that our Lord makes be true?
Luk 7:28 "For I say unto you, Among those that are born of women there is not a greater prophet than John the Baptist: but he that is least in the kingdom of God is greater than he."
Would John the Baptist be least in the Kingdom of Heaven? Absolutely not! Yet Jesus says that even the least in the Kingdom of God is greater than John the Baptist. How can this be if they are both the same? John was under the Old Covenant when he died, and was not born again at the fire baptism on Pentecost, that is why anyone born again and baptized in the Holy Spirit is greater in the spiritual Kingdom of God. I believe that John was one of the Old Covenant saints that rose from the grave when Christ died on the cross, and of course is in Heaven, but what Jesus was trying to tell us, with this teaching, was that the spiritual kingdom is much more important than the literal one, or that at the very least, the spiritual kingdom must be attained FIRST.
It can be likened to an old song, that you are probably to young to have ever heard, and that no longer applies in this modern state of the world with same-sex marriages, but the concept is the same.
"Love and marriage, love and marriage,
goes together like a horse and carriage.
What's the difference Mother?
You can't have one without the other!!"
Simplified, I know, but it is the same with the Kingdom of Heaven and the Kingdom or cannot have one without the other!!
I would like to include here another part of my first study that I feel really hits home the idea of two kingdoms.
Perhaps the best example of this difference between the terms "Kingdom of Heaven" and "Kingdom of God", is found in Matt.11:12:
"And from the days of John the Baptist until now the kingdom of heaven suffereth violence, and the violent take it by force." (Matt. 11:12 KJV)
If the "Kingdom of God" is within you, and if the "Kingdom of God" and "Kingdom of Heaven are completely one and the same, then how could anyone take it out of you by violence? And if that righteousness, the Kingdom of God within you, could not possibly be there until after the cross and the resurrection, then what is Jesus saying to the Jews here BEFORE the cross and the resurrection? The answer is the Kingdom of Israel, which is God's people and Jerusalem, the Lord's chosen place to rule from:
"But I say unto you, Swear not at all; neither by heaven; for it is God's throne: Nor by the earth; for it is his footstool: neither by Jerusalem; for it is the city of the great King." (Matt. 5:34-35 KJV).
I would like to finish this study and response with some Scriptures that point to the difference between these kingdoms. I will not include the verse in their entirety, but give their general meaning and for more clarity one can go and read them for themselves.
Luke 1:30-33 and Isaiah 9:6-7 The twofold work: Reinstating the kingdom back to Israel (physical).
John 18:36NOW his kingdom is not from here.
Acts 1:1-12Restore AGAIN the kingdom to Israel obviously not referring to a spiritual kingdom but an earthly kingdom).
Isaiah 41:2Abraham was given the nations to him and the Lord made him rule over kings.
Only preached to the Jews (Matthew 10:5-7, Matthew 15:22-28), preached again during the tribulation (Matthew 24:14).
Matthew 11:11-12: The kingdom of heaven suffers violence and the violent take it by force.
The Lord Jesus Christ will reign from Jerusalem over all the earth (Matthew 5:34-35).
Matthew 6:10  Thy kingdom come, thy will be done on earth (see also Job 38:33).
Daniel 2:36-45 (the king of Babylon was called king of kings – so is the Lord Jesus
Daniel 7:13-14, 18, 27-28 Earthly, visible kingdom which the saints shall possess forever.
Zechariah 9:9-10Dominion over the earth.
Jeremiah 23:5-6Christ reigning on earth.
Revelation 12:5to rule the nations.
Matthew 25:31The Son of man and his throne of glory on earth.
Matthew 1:20-21 The twofold work: Sin issue (spiritual).
Luke 17:20-21and Colossians 1:26-27 Within you.
Romans 14:17 You in him.
Matthew 21:33-44  Kingdom of God given to the Gentiles to provoke the Jews to
jealousy because of their rejection of Christ and the kingdom. This is a finite amount of time (Romans 11:25-26).
Matthew 16:28 Mark 9:1 Luke 9:27
"Verily I say unto you,There be some standing here, which shall not
taste of death, till they see the Son of man coming in his kingdom."
"And he said unto them, Verily I say unto you, That there be some of them that stand here,which shall not taste of death till they have seen the kingdom of God come with power."
"But I tell you of a truth, there be some standing here, which shall not taste of death, till they see the kingdom of God."
Notice how the kingdom of Heaven is not mentioned here. It is specifically the kingdom of God. Again please note that Jesus nevers says that the Kingdom of Heaven is INSIDE YOU. That is probably the biggest indicator that they are not the same.
There you have it, my response to you, Sandra Jean. I hope I covered all your questions and helped you to see the possibility of them being two different kingdoms. Again, it is vital to know that they are mutually exclusive and the Kingdom of God must be entered in order to take part in the Kingdom of Heaven. If one is not born again from above, and worship in Spirit and in Truth, they will never see the literal Kingdom of Heaven.
Yet, this issue is not one that believing one way or another will affect a person's salvation, but it is an issue that really helps one rightly divide the Holy Scriptures, and see a bit more clearly through that "glass darkly".
Thanks again for reading and responding to my study with a study of your own and such good questions. I appreciate the opportunity to address them, and in doing so, hopefully added to my first study and clarified some crucial points.
May the Lord bless you richly!!
He is our awesome KING OF KINGS AND LORD OF LORDS!!!
Patti C.
Sandra Jean (26 July 2013)
Hi Patti. Interesting study...and I can see why some people perceive the two kingdoms separately. However, I would like to suggest that the two kingdoms are actually one and the same. Please consider the following quote by our Redeemer:
Then Jesus said to His disciples, "I tell you the truth, it is hard for a rich man to enter the Kingdom of Heaven. Again I tell you, it is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle than for a rich man to enter the Kingdom of God." (Matthew 19:23-24)
I reviewed 5 different Bible versions (KJV, NKJV, NASV, TLB, and Stern's Hebrew Bible) of Matthew 19. They all are fairly identical with Jesus first referencing Kingdom of Heaven and then He immediately references Kingdom of God.
To me, that could mean only one thing...that Jesus considered them to be identical. And perhaps He knew that somewhere in the future, Christians would be having this discussion.
My research shows that the phrase, "Kingdom of Heaven," is used only in the Book of Matthew and nowhere else in the NT. I find that interesting, but the argument is that Matthew, who wrote specifically to the Jews, did not want to offend Jewish sensibilities.
Another thing that's interesting: "If you compare the synoptic gospels -- Matthew, Mark, and Luke, you will find that Matthew's King of Heaven exactly parallels Mark's and Luke's Kingdom of God. So there is no doubt that they are different terms describing the same thing."
Scripture examples as follows:
Matthew 5:3/Beatitudes ("...for theirs is the Kingdom of Heaven") vs Luke 6:20/Beatitudes ("...for yours is the Kingdom of God.")
Matthew 8:11 ("...sit down the Kingdom of Heaven") vs Luke 13:29 ("...and shall sit down in the Kingdom of God").
•Matthew 11:11-12 ("...he that is least in the Kingdom of Heaven") vs Luke 7:28 ("...he that is least in the Kingdom of God").
•Matthew 18:3 ("...not enter into the Kingdom of Heaven") vs Mark 10-14 ("...the Kingdom of God...he shall not enter").
There are more examples, but hopefully, you will find the "one kingdom" argument compelling. Blessings!