the holy city shall they tread under foot forty and two months:
Revelation 11:2 But the court which is without the temple leave out, and measure it not; for it is given unto the Gentiles: and the holy city shall they tread under foot forty and two months.3 And I will give power unto my two witnesses, and they shall prophesy a thousand two hundred and threescore days, clothed in sackcloth.
The holy city shall the Gentiles tread foot forty and two months, which is 3½ years.So, if someone believes that the tribulation is the full last week of Daniel's prophecy, rather than the last half of that week,then during which part of those 7 years do they believe that the Gentiles will tread the holy city?If they think that it would be the last 3½ years, then why would they then immediately, in the following line,place the ministry of the two witnesses in the 3½ years before that?What in the wording of lines 2 and 3 would indicate that the first 3½ years mentioned would belong to a 2nd half of a 7 year tribulation,but that the second 3½ years mentioned actually belong to a 1st half of a 7 year tribulation?Didn't someone recently, and it may have been Pastor Riley, say that two 3½ year parts are bookended, shown by two lines?
Revelation 11:7 And when they shall have finished their testimony, the beast that ascendeth out of the bottomless pit shall make war against them, and shall overcome them, and kill them.
Revelation 13:5 And there was given unto him a mouth speaking great things and blasphemies; and power was given unto him to continue forty and two months.
That supposedly, since line 13:5 comes after line 11:7, then the "continue" in line 13:5 must mean,that the 3½ years in line 13:5 must "continue after" the 3½ years of line 11:7, to make a total of 7 years,hinging on the thought that all the lines of all the chapters in Revelation are in chronological sequence,i.e. that the things in the book only happen in sequence, none in parallel, and none repeated from another perspective,and none out of sequential order?However, line 11:2 precedes line 11:3, so how could it be taught that line 2 must then happen "after" line 3?Wouldn't all the difficulties, with placing the 3½ year parts, go away, if there is only a 3½ year tribulation?That all the following 3½ year descriptions are speaking of the same 3½ year tribulation?
Revelation 11:2 But the court which is without the temple leave out, and measure it not; for it is given unto the Gentiles: and the holy city shall they tread under foot forty and two months.3 And I will give power unto my two witnesses, and they shall prophesy a thousand two hundred and threescore days, clothed in sackcloth.
Revelation 12:14 And to the woman were given two wings of a great eagle, that she might fly into the wilderness, into her place, where she is nourished for a time, and times, and half a time, from the face of the serpent.
Revelation 13:5 And there was given unto him a mouth speaking great things and blasphemies; and power was given unto him to continue forty and two months.
Wouldn't that mean that the beast would kill the two witnesses at the end of the tribulation?Would it not make sense that the two witnesses prophecy at the same time that the beast and the false prophet are deceiving people?Wouldn't the LORD have witnesses of light during the darkest time? witnesses of truth during the time of greatest deception and lies?
Revelation 11:7 And when they shall have finished their testimony, the beast that ascendeth out of the bottomless pit shall make war against them, and shall overcome them, and kill them.
Also, line 11:7, which says "shall have finished" and "shall overcome", does not say "shall ascend",which would have meant that the beast ascends after the witnesses finish, but it does not say "shall ascend",but it says "that ascendeth", which describes "what", more than "when".Also, doesn't the "continue" in line 13:5 indicate that his power continues through the entire 3½ years,without interruption, except at the very end, by Jesus?