I was always taught that the great tribulation and the final three and an half years are exactly the same thing.

Is it possible that the great tribulation occurs "within" the 3½ years, rather than occupies the entire 3½ years?

The reason I ask is because the days of the great tribulation are shortened, not necessarily shortening the 3½ years.

Matthew 24:16 Then let them which be in Judaea flee into the mountains:

 20 But pray ye that your flight be not in the winter, neither on the sabbath day:

 21 For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be.

 22 And except those days should be shortened, there should no flesh be saved: but for the elect’s sake those days shall be shortened.

The 3½ years is referred to seven times, in different ways, in two books, Daniel and Revelation:

Daniel 7:25 And he shall speak great words against the most High, and shall wear out the saints of the most High, and think to change times and laws: and they shall be given into his hand until a time and times and the dividing of time.

Daniel 12:7 And I heard the man clothed in linen, which was upon the waters of the river, when he held up his right hand and his left hand unto heaven, and sware by him that liveth for ever that it shall be for a time, times, and an half; and when he shall have accomplished to scatter the power of the holy people, all these things shall be finished.

Revelation 11:2 But the court which is without the temple leave out, and measure it not; for it is given unto the Gentiles: and the holy city shall they tread under foot forty and two months.

 3 And I will give power unto my two witnesses, and they shall prophesy a thousand two hundred and threescore days, clothed in sackcloth.

Revelation 12:6 And the woman fled into the wilderness, where she hath a place prepared of God, that they should feed her there a thousand two hundred and threescore days.

 14 And to the woman were given two wings of a great eagle, that she might fly into the wilderness, into her place, where she is nourished for a time, and times, and half a time, from the face of the serpent.

Revelation 13:5 And there was given unto him a mouth speaking great things and blasphemies; and power was given unto him to continue forty and two months.

Also, both the great tribulation mentioned in Matthew, and the 3½ years, appear in the context of Israel.

In Matthew 24:16 it mentions those living in Judaea, and line 20 mentions the sabbath.

Is Jesus speaking here about the coming suffering of the Jews, particularly those Jews believing on his name?

Then Daniel's two references to the 3½ years appear to be in context of Daniel's people.

Also, so does Revelation 11:2,3 and 12:6,14 appear to be in context of Israel.

Only Revelation 13:5 would seem to be not necessarily only referring to Israel.

But, going back to my first question, can the great tribulation be shortened while not violating the 3½ years?

I know some have said that shortening the days means changing the sun, so the days would be less than 24 hours.

They claim that the following scripture:

Revelation 8:12 And the fourth angel sounded, and the third part of the sun was smitten, and the third part of the moon, and the third part of the stars; so as the third part of them was darkened, and the day shone not for a third part of it, and the night likewise.

has the sun changed, so that a full day will only be 16 hours long, and no longer 24 hours.

The main reason for this, I think, is to find a way that the days can be shortened, without violating the 3½ years.

The terms "great tribulation" and "3½ years" have been equated as one and the same, etched in our minds for so many years.

Less sunlight, however, does not mean less days of suffering, but less hours.

I guess that could mean that the total number of hours of suffering would be reduced.

So, when Jesus said those days shall be shortened, was he speaking in secret code to the disciples about hours of the day?

So that 1900 plus years later, someone with a decoder ring, discovers the secret code, tying it to Revelation 8:12?

They discover that Jesus wasn't speaking about the number of days at all, but about the number of hour in the day?

I'm sorry, but why would he speak so plain about so many other things there on the mount of Olives,

but then go so cryptic about shortening the days, not meaning what it sounds like it means?

I realize that Jesus spoke at other times in parables, and referred to his body, not the temple, when he said in 3 days.

Most of those times there were scribes or Pharisees listening as well, but on the mount of Olives it was only his disciples.

Did Jesus go from plain to cryptic back to plain again with his disciples, and if so, what would be the reason for that?

So, I ask again, is it possible that the great tribulation occurs within the 3½ years, without necessarily filling every day of the 3½ years?

Does great tribulation mean 3½ years, or does it refer to a time of suffering?

Can that time of suffering be "within" the 3½ years, or must it be exactly 3½ years long, like the 3½ years itself?