Tom Bigbee (27 Aug 2012)
"As a Thief in the Night – A Swindled Concept"


There are three verses that will be referenced in this study.  I will reference these later as Ref1, Ref2, and Ref3:

But know this, that if the manager of the house had known in what watch the thief would come, he would have watched, and would not have suffered his house to be broken into.  Therefore be you also ready: for in such an hour as you think not the Son of man comes.  – Matthew 24:43-44

But of the times and the seasons, brothers, you have no need that I write to you.  For yourselves know perfectly that the day of the Lord so comes as a thief in the night.  – 1 Thessalonians 5:1-2

Remember therefore how you have received and heard, and hold fast, and repent.  If therefore you shall not watch, I will come on you as a thief, and you shall not know what hour I will come on you.  – Revelation 3:3

Because this is an important subject I will lay some foundation that might seem obvious to some but it will ensure that I am communicating correctly.

Just to be sure our English translations are correct I checked seven versions of the Greek texts and:

  1. The word for thief is the same in all instances
  2. There are no Greek variances regarding the phrase "the thief" in Ref1
  3. The same is true for "as a thief" in Ref2 & Ref3, with the article "a" being supplied for English grammar
  4. These words are all translated accurately

Definition from Oxford Dictionaries:
Thief: a person who steals another person’s property, especially by stealth and without using force or violence.
The key concepts of the definition are:

  1. takes
  2. another’s property
  3. secretly
  4. without violence

In the King James Version and Douay-Rheims Bible, Ref1 has an incorrectly translated word.  They both use a very old term; "the goodman of the house" but this word implies a good and moral house master, a meaning that is not in the Greek.  The word Oikodespotes  simply means "house manager" or "house master".  All 16 other translations I looked at correctly rendered it as "owner of the house", "master of the house", "head of the house", or similarly.

With the technicalities established, let’s continue.

I am asserting that these three verses are speaking of exactly the same, still future event.  I think most readers will agree with this and though a few may argue against it, I will also assert the convention that this will be a single event that is not repeated.

In Ref3 it is Jesus who is speaking to the assembly at Sardis, therefore "I will come on you as a thief" unconditionally defines Jesus as the one acting as a thief.  If true then logically we can deduce from Ref2 that "the day of the Lord", at least in this instance, is referring to the same event in Ref3 when he "will come".  The possibility should be recognized that "the day of the Lord" could be a much longer time span where coming as a thief signals the start.

Some questions that must be answered correctly:

1) Why did Paul and John not say "as an assassin" [as in Acts 21:38] or "as a destroyer" [as in 1 Corinthians 10:10]?

I asked this to make a point that when Jesus comes "as a thief" he will not be killing anyone or destroying anything, at least not then.  True to the dictionary's definition it will be without violence.  But he will be taking something!

2) Why did they not phrase it as "being a thief" instead of "as a thief"?

It is because "being a thief" implies being evil, which Jesus is not, but the simile "as a thief" means he is taking something without being evil.  How is that possible?  Because he will be taking something that belongs to him!

3) Why did they not use the words as "as a robber" instead of "as a thief"?

Because the definition of a robber is different than a thief!  A robber steals by threat or force but a thief takes by stealth!  Post-tribbers and A-tribbers often make fun of the rapture/harpazo/natzal by calling it "the secret rapture".  They are half right.  It will be a secret before it happens – but it will not be a secret afterwards!

4) Why did Jesus use the phrase "would not have allowed his house to be broken into" (NAS)?

Because many people misunderstand who the principle players are in Ref1 and Luke 12:39, due in part to the KJV use of "goodman".  We’ve established who will be doing the taking, but who is the "the master of the house" who if he knew when it was going to happen would try to prevent it?

The master of the house is not God, and it is not the Ekklesia (us)!  It is Satan who is the current master of this earthly house!

And I give eternal life to them, and they will never perish; and no one will snatch them out of My hand.  – John 10:28 (NAS)

The Arraignment:

I titled this study As a Thief in the Night – A Swindled Concept because I think that we are often swindled out of an important concept!

It has been my observation that these three references, and Ref1’s cousin in Luke 12:39, have been consistently used to teach that he will come without notice or warning, and that is good – but then the teacher leaves out the other all important aspect of this simile.

Yes, he will come without warning, but to do what?  To take something!  And what is it that already belongs to him that he wants?  HIS BRIDE!

Tom
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