Gino (28 Apr 2024)
"Is that possible, or is there another explanation?"


In Egypt, the plagues didn't "just happen", leaving the people to guess why, or from whom, were they happening.

Exodus 7:5 And the Egyptians shall know that I am the LORD, when I stretch forth mine hand upon Egypt, and bring out the children of Israel from among them.

  16 And thou shalt say unto him, The LORD God of the Hebrews hath sent me unto thee, saying, Let my people go, that they may serve me in the wilderness: and, behold, hitherto thou wouldest not hear.

  17 Thus saith the LORD, In this thou shalt know that I am the LORD: behold, I will smite with the rod that is in mine hand upon the waters which are in the river, and they shall be turned to blood.


There was no guessing involved.
There was no blaming it on their own gods whom they may have thought that they hadn't appeased sufficiently.
No, it was clear from the outset that it was the LORD God of the Hebrews that was bringing these plagues.
So, why wouldn't it be the same for those things described in the book of Revelation?
If the book is chronological, then the two witnesses don't show up until chapter 11.
That would then be after the seals had been opened, and the first 6 trumpets blown.
Those 6 trumpets will be horrific, especially the locusts with stings, and the horses with lions heads with fire, smoke, and brimstone.
Would people be left to guess why, and from who, these things will be happening?
Would they guess that they offended the false goddess "mother earth", or that it's climate change, or aliens?
How would the people of the earth know that it was the LORD God of Israel bringing these things upon the earth?
And the first 6 seals are opened in chapter 6, but the 144,000 are sealed in the next chapter, 7.
How will the people of the earth know from whom these are coming?
How would they be able to say?

Revelation 6:16 And said to the mountains and rocks, Fall on us, and hide us from the face of him that sitteth on the throne, and from the wrath of the Lamb:

  17 For the great day of his wrath is come; and who shall be able to stand?


They just don't say, "wrath of the Lamb", and "the great day of his wrath", without being told that, or at least reading it for themselves, in the Bible.

So, either, it may be possible that the book of Revelation is not necessarily all strictly chronological?
Or possibly that all this will have been prophesied to them by that point, but that the prophesying to them simply wasn't mentioned at all in the text?
I think the first possibility is more likely?
Is that possible, or is there another explanation?

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