Notice the context of the below scriptures.
Paul first is preaching to the Jews.
They reject his message of salvation.
THEN, Paul preaches to the Gentiles ''for Two full
years''.
Does this indicate that the Gospel goes to the Gentiles for
2000 years?
¶
And when they had appointed him a day, there came many
to him into his lodging;
to whom he expounded and testified the kingdom of God,
persuading them ( ie the Jews) concerning Jesus, both
out of the law of Moses, and out of the
prophets, from morning till evening.
And when they agreed not among themselves, they
departed, after that Paul had spoken one word, Well
spake the Holy Ghost by Esaias the prophet unto our
fathers, (again, speaking of the Jews)
Saying, Go unto this people, and say, Hearing ye shall
hear, and shall not understand; and seeing ye shall see,
and not perceive:
For the heart of this people is waxed gross, and their
ears are dull of hearing, and their eyes have they
closed; lest they should see with their eyes,
and hear with their ears,
and understand with their heart,
and should be converted, and I should heal them.
¶
Be it known therefore unto you, that the salvation of
God is sent unto the Gentiles, and that they
will hear it.
And when he had said these words, the
Jews departed, and had great reasoning
among themselves.
¶
And Paul dwelt two whole years in his own hired
house, and received all that came in unto him,
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