Kevin Heckle (3 Nov 2010)
"Jovial - RE: Daniel 9"

 

Jovial,

I would respectfully disagree with you regarding the passage in Daniel 9.  The version Bible you are using paints a picture that the Messiah “is no more”.  There are no Aramaic words in the original text to be the basis for “is no more”.  In fact, Jesus laid down His OWN life. No person or entity has or had the power to do harm to the Lord, lest He allowed it.  To the point that your version Bible states that the anointed “is no more” would be patently false as He is risen.  He laid His own life down, He raised it up again and yet lives! 

 

The KJV states that the anointed was ‘cut-off’ after 62 weeks.  Many people claim this ‘cut-off’ is in reference to the Crucifixion, but I believe that isn’t necessarily so. Strong’s H3772 for ‘cut-off’ is karath and is used in reference to cutting a covenant in Genesis 15:(18).  In Genesis 17:14 the evidence of the covenant relationship with the Lord, is circumcision. H4135 muwl interpreted as ‘circumcision’ in the KJV also has the meaning ‘cut-off’. 

 

Those whose foreskin that was not ‘cut-off’ and thus breaking the covenant with the Lord would be ‘cut-off’ from his people. 

 

 

Genesis 17:10 says the covenant circumcision is required of the contractee (‘which YE shall keep’) receiving the promise as opposed to the Lord giving the promise in return.  The Messiah, son of God, is the heir giver of the covenant and as such would not need to perform the requirement of the contractee receiving the promise.  Yet He did perform the requirement of the covenant, it was performed when He was 8 days old, ‘but not for himself’ as the KJV astutely decrees!

 

The Messiah, Jesus was born (and circumcised) AFTER 62 sevens of 364 or 365 day ecclesiastical years but BEFORE 63 sevens from the command to build Jerusalem (444 B.C.).  Likewise, His anointing (Spirit descending like a dove at the baptism) came 69 sevens from the command to restore (return to) Jerusalem (457 B.C.).  The ‘when Jesus was about 30’ marked the beginning of Jesus’ ministry (confirming the covenant). 

 

In the midst of one seven (3.5 years) confirming the covenant JESUS caused the sacrifice and the oblation to CEASE (H7673 SHABATH = cease, desist and REST).  HE put an end to the labors FOREVER.  The TEMPLE veil was torn in two from top to bottom and the rocks of the temple also were broken by an earthquake.  ANY temple sacrifices and oblations after that which Jesus did on the Cross is an ABOMINATION.  Paul devotes almost the entire letter  to the HEBREWS explaining that Jesus, the High Priest, offered Himself and for an EVERLASTING RIGHTEOUSNESS. Jesus provided a permanent solution to make an end of sins.  Most of the Hebrews didn’t believe Paul’s letter either, they still don’t.

 

Daniel in 9:26 explains that it will be the people of the prince (AC) which destroys the city and the sanctuary (built with hands).  HOWEVER, it will be the MESSIAH (who is the only one able) that will ‘cause the sacrifice and oblation to cease.  Even though the actual animal sacrifices and offerings continued until the temple destruction in 70 AD, the MESSIAH caused its objective to CEASE INDEFINITELY some 40 years EARLIER.  It will be the MESSIAH who shall make the temple of stones DESOLATE (empty: God left the building), even though the people of the prince (AC) would perform the actual physical destruction.   Because of the abominations (moneychangers, den of thieves, hypocrisy, etc.) that the Messiah would find on the wings of the temple, He would make it desolate even until the END (which it still is).

 

THIS ALL HAPPENED JUST AS DANIEL PREDICTED!  While it was JESUS who caused the sacrifice and the oblation to rest (PRAISE HIM!!), it was the ROMAN legions who physically destroyed the city and the SANCTUARY.  IT REMAINS DESOLATE UNTIL NOW.  ALL THAT IS LEFT IS THE WAILING WALL.  IT WILL REMAIN DESOLATE UNTIL THE END, when God’s judgment shall be poured (bowl judgments) out upon the desolate.

 

 

Answer these questions: 

 

1.   If, as you assert, 26a mentions the Messiah’s destruction and then skips to the AC for the remainder of the chapter (not just the verse):  Where does Daniel resume the narrative regarding the Messiah?  I mean is that it? He came, He got cut-off and is ‘no more’:

2.   If He came, got cut-off and is no more; How did He contribute to the purpose of the 70 weeks (9:24), which is finishing the transgression, making an end of sins, reconciliation for iniquity, etc.?

3.   When does (did) the Messiah atone for iniquity and how long does the atonement last?

4.   If it is the AC who causes the sacrifice and oblation to cease: Would the practice of animal sacrifice be reinstituted by the Highest Priest Jesus after the Second Coming under the guise of ‘making reconciliation for iniquity, everlasting righteousness, etc. or was His atoning work on the Cross enough to give us an everlasting righteousness?

5.   Wouldn’t the sacrifice and oblation have ceased (rested) when the Messiah made reconciliation for iniquity?

6.   From the time of Jesus’ crucifixion until the Temple destruction in 70 AD, was the sacrifice and oblation being performed by the Temple priests acceptable by God?

7.   If the Temple were rebuilt today and the sacrifice and oblation were reinstituted and performed by very devout Jewish rabbi’s, would their sacrifices and oblations be acceptable to the Lord?

8.   How is it that the antichrist has the authority to make a covenant for 1 seven (7 years) if He is only given the authority (power) of action (G4160 poieo) for 42 months (3.5 years or more literally 1240.28 days)? (Rev. 13:5)

9.   If, as you assert, that the AC causes the ‘sacrifice and oblation to cease’ three and a half years into a ‘seven year covenant’ which he’s supposedly made with the Israelis, wouldn’t that constitute a breach of the covenant?  If it is a breach of the covenant how can he still confirm it for 3.5 more years totaling the 7? 

10.                Other than this supposed seven year covenant agreed to at the beginning and confirmed for seven years by a guy who only has authority for the last 42 months of the covenant:  Is there ANYWHERE in the Bible clearly declaring thee Tribulation to be any longer than a general 3.5 year timeframe? 

 

 

Respectfully,

Kevin H.

P.S. Jesus being ‘cut-off’ after 7 + 62 weeks could also be in reference to the rejection by His people, but I do not believe it is in reference to the Crucifixion.  He was beaten, affixed to the cross and pierced but nothing was severed or broken from His body except the blood.  If this is the true interpretation of it, it occurs to me that the door is open to say Daniel 9:26 may not reference the antichrist at all and never breaks from the Messiah’s narrative.  Here is what I mean: If the being ‘cut-off’ is in reference to Messiah’s rejection (not His fault, ‘not for himself’): then HIS people (the Jews) destroyed the city and the sanctuary.  They were in rebellion against Rome (which caused the destruction).  There is also some historical evidence to suggest that Berenice, the daughter of Herod Agrippa I (a Jewish person), compelled her lover Titus to destroy the Temple.  The end of the rebellion came at Masada ‘with a flood’ (by the Dead Sea) in 73 AD and ‘even unto the end’ of the War (the worst we’ve ever known) WWII desolations were determined.  After WWII the desolations yielded to restoration.