RE: Michael McDonald (16 May 2006) "question: Jesus's Family question: Jesus' Family"

Nothing must wound the heart of Mary more than the fact that so many people have turned their onto eyes to her instead of looking only to the Lord Jesus Christ for salvation and answered prayer. Like any observant Jewish wife Mary rendered unto her lawful husband Joseph due marital affections and had several children by him after Jesus was born. Of course, she was a virgin when Jesus was born, but not after that. In other words: Mary was not-a-perpetual-virgin.

Matthew 13:55  Is not this the carpenter's son? is not his mother called Mary? and his brethren, James, and Joses, and Simon, and Judas?
Mark 6:3 Is not this the carpenter, the son of Mary, the brother of James, and Joses, and of Juda, and Simon? and are not his sisters here with us? And they were offended at him.
Acts 1:14 These all continued with one accord in prayer and supplication, with the women, and Mary the mother of Jesus, and with his brethren.

Note this verse in particular because it proves that Jesus' brothers and sisters were in fact the children of Mary (and not Joseph by another marriage, or his cousins):

Psalms 69:8  I am become a stranger unto my brethren, and an alien unto my mother's children.
John 7:5  For neither did his brethren believe in him.

The new-but-not-improved 'bibles' change Isaiah 7:14 to make it sound like Mary was a perpertual virgin, even though she clearly was not. The modern versions say "the virgin" (sometimes even with a capital "V") instead of "_a virgin_" in Isaiah 7:14. Here is the correct version:

Isaiah 7:14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

Mary was "a virgin" when she conceived Jesus in the flesh by the Holy Ghost (hence Jesus Christ by Mary was made of "David's seed" according to the flesh - Romans 1:3), but she is no longer a virgin, therefore it is inappropriate to call her "The Virgin Mary." That title is never given to her in the Bible.  A good Jewish wife, like Mary, would never be rebellious against her husband in conducting a sham marriage where she refuses to fulfil the most basic Torah commandment: Be fruitful and multiply (see, Genesis 1:28 , Genesis 9:1 , Genesis 35:11 , Genesis 48:4 , Leviticus 26:9  ; see also 1 Corinthians 7:5 ).

This also tells us that it is incorrect to call Mary "the Mother of God." The Lord Jesus Christ eternally existed with God as part of the godhead: he did not come into being out of Mary or when he was concieved in the flesh through Mary - that was only his body. Hence "this day I have begotten thee" is a reference to the conception, and not (despite the warring creeds on this point) to any particular point in time when Christ became the Son of God, because he has an eternal pre-existence with God before anything was created.
(see, Micah 5:2  "from everlasting"; John 1:3   "All things were made by him";  Ephesians 3:9 "hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ", see also John 1:1, etc. etc.).

Because people make this mistake (Jesus is God, therefore Mary is the "mother of God"!), we notice that not one time did Jesus ever call Mary his "mother" - but rather always called her "woman."  Mary even made the mistake of referring to Joseph as the "father" of Jesus (proving she was not "sinless" either, but also needed a "saviour" Luke 1:47 ) , and so the Lord corrected her on that point, saying he was about his real "father's business." Luke 2:48-9 .

- M