Dear Doves,

[Rev 13:1] And I stood upon the sand of the sea, and saw a beast rise up out
of the sea, having seven heads and ten horns, and upon his horns ten crowns,
and upon his heads the name of blasphemy.

The Concordance lists  "thalassa" as the Greek word for "sea". However in
Hebrew the word for "sea" is "yam" (e.g. in Genesis 1:26), which also means
"west" (e.g. in Zechariah 14:4), and sometimes may also mean "south".
 
(So if read in Hebrew, then Revelation 13:1, could also identify the 1st beast
as arising out of the West, which is exactly where Prince Charles comes from !
So "west" and "sea" both describe the location from which the AntiChrist will arise.)

I wondered whether this approach ie. from Greek to Hebrew could be correct,
and then recalled Rev 9:11 which may provide a clue to using such an
approach.

[Rev 9:11] "And they had a king over them, which is the angel of the
bottomless pit, whose name in the Hebrew tongue is Abaddon, but in the Greek
tongue hath his name Apollyon."

If this is correct, then when scripture refers to a word in a different
language, the Lord  may be telling us to check the meaning/s of other words
used in that same book in the different languages ? eg. Daniel 2:4 mentions
"Syriack" or Aramaic. (Also Acts 9:36 refers to "Tabitha" which may be
Hebrew, and "Dorcas" which is the Greek equivalent) So then part of the
sealed meaning of Daniel, could be Aramaic/Hebrew ?

[Dan 2:4] Then spake the Chaldeans to the king in Syriack, O king, live for
ever: tell thy servants the dream, and we will shew the interpretation.

I do also recall from discussions on the newsgroups  that some similar
sounding/spelt words have different meanings in hebrew and aramaic eg.
Somebody who did not believe in Jesus as once wrote in reference to Psalm
2:12 that depending on whether one uses Hebrew only or Hebrew and Aramaic,
that verse could be translated differently  ... I can't remember the exact
word, it could have been "bar" which is Aramaic for "son", but in Hebrew it
would have been "ben" instead (even though "bar" appears in the Hebrew dictionary,
it was adopted from Aramaic and is not an original word for son)?  The inspired KJV translators had it
correct, but some contemporary Hebrew translators have it incorrect.

So if there are similar spelt/sounding words with different meanings shared
between Hebrew and Aramaic, then if one investigates the meanings of some of
the words in Daniel in the other language, then it could possibly unseal the
meaning of some verses ? Also the same may be true for other parts of
scripture