Thanks everyone for their replies to my question.

But first of all, Matthew, Mark, Luke and John are all chapters that are talking to the Jews. Jesus came to the Jews, and the Jews were living under the law. So every thing He said was, out of necessity, LAW (because that was the dispensation they were living in) As Paul said, the “New Testament”, (GRACE) could not come into effect until the testator (Jesus) died.

So, how can you take something that was written to another people, written under a different dispensation and apply it to people who are living under the dispensation of grace. It’s like Paul said: Law and Grace don’t mix. That is why the parables, and things written in Matt, Mark, Luke and John do not sound like what Paul taught...GRACE!

The bottom line is this: Anything taken out of Matt, Mark, Luke and John cannot prove anything to me, because it is not Grace, but Law. I am pretty sure that I will not change my opinion of the preceding things that I wrote.

But the following thing I am going to write is just a possibility in my mind, and I know that this will not be accepted by most, but at least keep an open mind...OK?

Paul was given the job of taking the Gospel to the Gentiles. As far as I know Paul was the only one the Jesus told to go to the Gentiles. So, it seems likely to me that everything that Paul wrote is for the dispensation of grace. It’s almost as if you could lift the books, Romans through Hebrews out of the Bible when the Church is raptured. The following books seem very likely to be talking to the Jews again...possibly during the period after the rapture when they will be sacrificing and living under the law again. The first verse in James starts out, “I, James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, to THE TWELVE TRIBES OF WHICH ARE SCATTERED ABROAD, GREETING.” What I am thinking is that these books from James to Revelation are primarily for the 144,000 that have come to believe in Jesus after the age of grace is over. Maybe?????? We do know that the Revelation is a Jewish book. All of the language is Jewish, even in the letters to the churches. (Remember that the word church means a “Called out gathering” That would not have to mean Church as we commonly think of it today, as God’s people the Jews were a “called out” people.

Now, back to Christians being left after the rapture; In both of the rapture passages that Paul wrote, it does not in any way indicate that some believers will not be included. It says, we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together. 1 Corr.15:51 Behold, I shew you a mystery; We shall not all sleep, but we shall ALL be changed.....(That doesn’t sound like some will not be raptured)

I still don’t see anything in scriptures that makes me believe that Jesus will only take part of His body and leave part of down here on earth. For one thing, the ones left down here would be living under the Jewish dispensation again, and not Grace.

Again, thanks for replying to my question.