Jovial (6 Mar 2013)
"The Language of Revelation (and others)"

In re Gino's comments at , I will keep my comments brief on this.  But in a few months, I plan to publish some research on the book of Revelation in which I will demonstrate some evidence no one has ever discussed before showing proof of its Hebrew design and new keys to symbolism that are understood only from a Hebrew perspective.  The book of Revelation, along with all of Paul's letters (I'm not including Hebrews), Jude, and Luke's writings were written in Hebrew, even though that Hebrew text was lost and NONE were published in Hebrew.  I am referring to simply the original draft, not the publication.  And I believe it was lost intentionally, because if it had not been, we would not find something even more fascinating.   I believe the Greek text has significance, because there is a pattern to the Greek text that unveils a Hebrew commentary to the New Testament that I will publish later.  It's too complicated to explain in a short letter, but when you see it, you will be amazed at how complexity to which G-d sealed the Scriptures with patterns that have a handiwork no human could have fathomed.

John was not written in Hebrew.  It was written in Aramaic, and your example of Bethesda in John 5:2, John stopped to say it was a Hebrew word because Chesda means something different in Hebrew than it means in Aramaic.  Many words are common to both languages, and some words are only in one or the other.  But CHESDA is a word that is in both languages, but with different meanings, and he wanted to reader to see the Hebrew "grace" in this word. 

John 19:13 is similar.  The Greek text of John 19:13 says "Gabbatha" is a Hebrew word, but it is not a Hebrew word.  The Aramaic version of John says the place is called "גפיפתא"  in Hebrew, which is a Hebrew word.  It's actually two Hebrew words, גפי/GPY refering to an elevated place (used in Prov 9:4) and PTA (Pey Tau Ayin) in Hebrew refers to "sudden" in Hebrew, though this word has been Aramaicized in the Peshitta such that the Ayin has been change to Alef, which is not uncommon.  (Compare the names of the Geneologies in Matthew and Luke to their Hebrew originals and you'll find other examples of that.)  This probably refers to an elevated place with a steep cliff - no real incline - you just hit the edge of the elevated plane and it drops off steeply until you hit the ground.  Now since this was a man-made structure, ("Stone Pavement" In Aramaic) it's easy to understand why the sides would have been so perfectly vertical.    Here, the root of the word went through some corruption in translation, altering "P" to "B", which is not much of a change since phonetically, a "B" is a voiced "P".  So all 19:13 proves is that the Greek scribes goofed up by using a phonetic sound-alike, perhaps as a result of oral transmission.

The Greek text of John 19:17 you quoted also spells Golgoltha wrong, leaving out the second "l".

Getting back to the original point, no one would say "time , times and half a time" in Greek.  No one would say that in English.  We'd say three and a half times.  The Greeks would do similar.  Irregardless of what language you read it in, it is a very Semetic sentence construction.