GM (6 March 2013)
"Chondra M 2Thes 2"

Chondra M 2Thes 2


You raise some good questions.  I hope the following is helpful.


No single verse can form a solid doctrine or understanding.  i.e. “Let the bible interpret itself.”  Therefore, a difference of opinion on 2 Thes 2:3 does not change the implication of rapture timing.  Remember that this verse is not teaching into the future so much as showing that “The day of the Lord” had not yet happened.  While searching for deep meaning in verses can be insightful, any secondary meaning is just that.


Apostasy/apostasio is indeed a very interesting word.  It could have multiple meanings.  If you look at G643 through G657 you will see how the theme of moving away from the truth can have both a physical as well as scriptural connotation.  Also, divorcement comes into the picture, which is as good a description of separation from God as any for the world under wrath.  The only Strong’s word close to “tasio” is G5021 “tasso”, meaning to appoint or set aside, which further strengthens the idea.


Even the phrase “The day of the Lord” is open to interpretation.  Is this His coming in the air or His coming to the earth?  A literal day defined or a period of days or months.  We can’t be completely sure because the word “hemera” has several possible English meanings.


We know that His church is not subject to His wrath and also that the Holy Spirit restraining evil is present in us.  So, in several ways we are assured of separation from the great tribulation marked by the pouring out of judgment.  When His church is removed there will definitely be a turning away from the true Christ over most of the world.  


Remember the end of 2 Thes 2:3 regarding the son of perdition.  He will be revealed in the same timing as the apostasy.  There is a very good chance he has been revealed in human terms today.  So, the question regarding the meaning of apostasy should also consider the revealing of the son of perdition.


Your question regarding 100% accuracy of translations is a big and loaded one.  I can only offer an opinion, not doctrine.  We in the age of Grace experience a different setting than the OT prophets.  I wonder if Moses or Elijah, or even John the Baptist would describe God as speaking in a “still small voice”?  Yet, most often that is our experience today.


As for translations, I have personally seen many instances of important variations when studying English versions.  That is why I like referencing the Hebrew and Greek.  If I thought we had more time I might choose to learn the languages directly.  Many prefer the KJV because it is not watered down like more recent translations.  The KJV also has many added words which change the meaning of entire verses. Every word in italics is added.  Reading the verses while passing over the italicized words is a revealing experience.  Which is correct?  God dispersed the people into different language groups for a reason.  I can only conclude He has temporarily allowed the translators to have influence during this time.  Every one of God’s words is true: the rest, to be determined.  Finally, we need to keep in mind the essential truths of the Faith, compared to the other aspects of scripture.