Gino (4 March 2013)
"RE: Jovial & Ted: book of Revelation"

I saw quoted in Ted's letter 03.02.13, from Jovial's letter 02.27.13 the following:

"I'm sure Revelation was originally communicated in Hebrew, and this harkens back to the use of the same phrase in Daniel."

The LORD Jesus told the apostle John to write in a book and send it to the seven churches in Asia.

Revelation 1:11 Saying, I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last: and, What thou seest, write in a book, and send it unto the seven churches which are in Asia; unto Ephesus, and unto Smyrna, and unto Pergamos, and unto Thyatira, and unto Sardis, and unto Philadelphia, and unto Laodicea.

Yes, there may have still been Hebrew Christians in some of those churches at the time John wrote it down.
However, most of the people in those seven churches at that time were Gentiles.
What language would they have needed John to write in, in order for them to be able to read and understand it?

Also when looking at the gospel of John, it seems that it was not written in Hebrew:

John 5:2 Now there is at Jerusalem by the sheep market a pool, which is called in the Hebrew tongue Bethesda, having five porches.
John 19:13 When Pilate therefore heard that saying, he brought Jesus forth, and sat down in the judgment seat in a place that is called the Pavement, but in the Hebrew, Gabbatha.
John 19:17 And he bearing his cross went forth into a place called the place of a skull, which is called in the Hebrew Golgotha:

There would have been no reason to write those three phrases like that, if the gospel had been written in Hebrew.
Clearly it was written in another language.

Then when reading:

Revelation 9:11 And they had a king over them, which is the angel of the bottomless pit, whose name in the Hebrew tongue is Abaddon, but in the Greek tongue hath his name Apollyon.

That particular wording almost makes it seem like the book was not given in either Hebrew of Greek.
If it was in Greek, it would most like would have only the name Apollyon, not the entire phrase "in the Greek tongue hath".
It would be similar to saying the following:
"The building was called 'house', but in Spanish they call it 'casa'".
There is no need, in the language that it is written in, for explaining what it "would be" in that same language.