Chondra M (4 March 2013)
"RE: Is English Translation (Bible) Wrong or Correct?"


RE: Is English Translation (Bible) Wrong or Correct?


If translation into English is wrong or misunderstood regarding the term apostasy… then doesn’t it make sense other words are also translated incorrectly to English? Why just this one word (apostasy)?  Would God allow that to happen for hundreds of years, for His word to be mistranslated?  If we say a “prophet” of God has to be 100% correct, 100% of the time, why do we not demand this from our own (translated) Bible or is it already correct?


Look at all these English translations of apostasy from 2Thess2:


NIV- until the rebellion occurs

ESV- the rebellion comes first

NET- until the rebellion comes 

NCV- until the turning away[a] from God happens 

KJV-  come a falling away first

Expanded Bible- until the turning away from God

ESV (anglicized)- unless the rebellion comes first

DARBY-  unless the apostasy have first come

1599 GENEVA- except there come a departing first

ORTHODOX JEWISH BIBLE (geepers—coping the whole verse, I added nothing to this): Let no one in any way lead you astray, because, unless the Merid (Rebellion, Revolt, the [Anti-Moshiach] Shmad Betrayal Defection of Apostasy, the Azivah Abandonment) Desertion comes rishonah (first), and the Apocalypse of the Ish HaMufkarut (Man of Lawlessness), the Ish HaChatta’ah Ben HaAvaddon (Man of Sin, Son of Destruction Anti-Moshiach) is unveiled.

NRSV- will not come unless the rebellion comes first

YOUNG’S LITERAL- if the falling away may not come first (huh?)

WYCLIFF- For but dissension come first


I really need to know…is the English translation of scripture partially correct or 100% correct?


If Apostasy means “leaving faith” and not “Rapture” it’s a game changer in the order of  how things will play out. This wouldn’t mean there isn’t a Pre-Trib rapture but rapture isn’t “immanent”. 


Please help…this is driving me nuts!