Jill,

 

You said:

 

This verse in my opinion has to be referring to His second coming. 

 

A quick look at this verse reveals it is not speaking of this. rather it is speaking directly to the day this earth an heaven pass away. In both references we see the exact same statement. In Mt. 24:35 & 36 and Mk. 13:31 & 32.

 

Mt. 24:34 & 35;

 

35: Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away.

 36: But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only.  

The day and hour being spoken to is simply the day this earth and heaven pass away and God brings the new into existence seen in Revelation 21:1;

And I saw a new heaven and a new earth: for the first heaven and the first earth were passed away; and there was no more sea.

Just following the rules of simple grammar, the antcedent statement "heaven and earth shall pass away" is the subject of the dependent adverb clause stating when. The dependent clause answers the question of the subject "when?" The answer is "no man knoweth" when this event will occur.

There has been so much utter confusion surrounding this is seems those who have taught this need a lesson in simple grammar. And English grammar was developed from Greek and Latin and follow the same basic laws.

I hope this helps.

YBIC,

Michael deKruif