Sister,In answer to your question. I firmly believe in "rightly dividing" [2 Timothy 2:15] the Word of God. In order to do so, then every aspect of the Scriptures have to be considered; the direct statement, the context, any figures of speech, any symbolism, the existing circumstances, past, present, or future tense, who it is that is being spoken to, and even who is doing the speaking. A lot of folks today want to ignore all of these things, but if one is to make sense of any piece of literature they will apply these rules, either consciously or subconciously. Almost everyone reading any book or magazine today applies these rules without question, except when it comes to God's Word. When it comes to the inspired Word of God today, a lot of people ignore [or throw out] all the rules of grammatical understanding and make up their own rules. No wonder there is such a mess of conflicting opinions and ideas and theories circulating today where God's Word is concerned.Sister, the Word of God makes it explicitly plain that even under this present "dispensation of grace" there are still clear distinctions between the Jew, the Gentile, and the church. This is clearly stated in 1 Corinthians 10:32, "Give none offense, neither to the Jews, nor to the Gentiles, nor to the church of God." It doesn't matter what dispensation we are living in, the Jew is still a Jew, a Gentile is still a Gentile, and the church is made up of both Jews and Gentiles who have been saved by the grace of God. The New Testament teaches this plainly enough for anyone to understand it, and that settles the matter whether some like it or not. Paul even wrote in Romans 3:1-2, "What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit is there of circumcision? Much every way: chiefly, because that unto them were committed the oracles of God." Notice that this is written in the present tense. Even in this dispensation the Jew is still a Jew and has an advantage because the Lord gave His Word to the Jews. Who ought then to better understand the Word or find it easier to understand than a Jew if they are willing to study it and believe it? Sadly, most of the religious Jews today are so busy studying what their Rabbis tell them to study [Mishna, Talmud, etc.] that they never get around to seriously studying the Word of God. [But then, few Gentiles study it seriously either]. Anyway, the point here is that the distinction between Jew and Gentile is still very much in existence today even in this present dispensation, and it is the Word of God that says so.A lot of folks "assume" that because Christ broke down the middle wall of partition between the Jew and the Gentile that makes everyone exactly the same. Sister, when Paul wrote in Romans 3:22, "Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:.." the context clearly indicates he is talking about salvation. All people, Jew and Gentile, must come to the Lord Jesus Christ the same way for salvation. Study the context for yourself. Again in Romans 10:12 it is stated, "For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon Him." And again, what is the subject under consideration in the context? Salvation! Sister, it is only on the basis of salvation that all distinctions are erased. The Scripture plainly says that in Christ "There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus," Galatians 3:28; Colossians 3:10-11. The latter passage makes it clear that this is talking about "the new man," the inward man that has been born of God. This old outward man [our body] is not saved, is still awaiting redemption [Romans 8:23], and is still under the present laws of nature; Jew or Gentile. To attempt to go beyond what the Scriptures clearly state in these verses, and erase all natural distinctions is to violate the plain statements of God's Word in 1 Corinthians 10:32, Romans 3:1-2, and many other places in the New Testament. Try Romans 11:25-27 for example. Are the Jews still Jews in this passage?Sister, there is a "silly theory" that when one gets saved today, they become "a spiritual Jew." That "theory" is pure unadulterated "hogwash." The theory is based on a totally wrong "interpretation" [I almost despise that word...most of God's Word doesn't need "interpreting," it just needs believing] of Romans 3:28-29, "For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh: But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the Spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God." The Preterists and a lot of other people lift this verse right out of its context and teach this silly theory that when a person gets saved they become "a spiritual Jew." Hogwash!If God's people would seriously study the Scriptures it could easily be seen that from Romans 1:1 through 2:16 the inspired writer is talking to the Gentiles. Then beginning in 2:17 and extending through 3:8 he is talking to the Jews. Then in 3:9 he sets forth the conclusion that both groups "are all under sin." From there he proceeds to point out that where salvation is concerned "there is no difference." We all have to be saved the same way, but our salvation does not presently change us into "spiritual Jews." People ought to be ashamed for teaching such a silly theory. In fact, they ought to be ashamed for such shallow Bible study. Sister, I was a lost Gentile before I got saved, and now I'm a saved Gentile. There is no way in the whole universe that I could ever become a "Jew." What the apostle was pointing out to the Jews in the context of Romans 2:17 through 3:8 is that just because one was a Jew by nature, that did not make that person a Jew inwardly or spiritually. Another way of putting it is that the Jews [Pharisees in particular] believed and taught that simply because they were Jews, they were automatically God's people and therefore saved. Paul is refuting such an idea in Romans 2:28-29 and plainly points out in the following verses that they too must come to Christ to have that inward transformation into a child of God.Sister, I have gone to a great length to anwer your question, because this is a subject that is greatly misunderstood and corrupted today, and when I answer a question from the Scriptures I want it nailed down, book, chapter, and verse, 1 Thessalonians 5:21. But now let's take a look at Acts 2.This whole chapter is again a classic example of people ignoring the context and trying to teach things that are not stated or even implied in the context. I have read many commentaries and heard many preachers say that in Acts 2 Peter was preaching to "the church," and therefore the things he said apply to "the church" today. Hogwash!Sister, three times in Acts 2 it is clearly stated, "Ye men of Judea, and all ye that dwell at Jerusalem, be this known.....," "Ye men of Israel, hear these words," "Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly....." Does this sound like Peter was preaching to "the church?" Not hardly! I don't know how it could be made any plainer that Peter [representing the church] was preaching to the Jews. The whole sermon in Acts 2 was to the Jews, about the Jews, and for the Jews, with only three short statements that could [or do] apply to Gentiles. Here they are: In verse 18, "and on My servants and on My handmaidens..." Verse 21, "and it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved." Verse 39, "and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call." Sister, you can't find another statement in Acts 2 that applies to anyone but the Jews. This is not my opinion. This is taking God's Word at face value for what it actually and literally says. And I will leave it up to those who choose to argue about it to explain to the Lord that His Word doesn't really mean what it says in Acts 2.Sister, I don't know what translation you are using, but I only use the KJV and the Masoretic Text of the Hebrew and the Textus Receptus of the Greek from which the KJV was translated. History, time, and serious dedicated study has proven that those are the only reliable preserved texts of God's Word. [If that sounds dogmatic, I plead guilty; I want the truth, not some corrupted translation]. Acts 2:17 actually and literally says, "I will pour out of My Spirit upon all flesh: and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams." Now who was Peter speaking to? Who was Peter speaking about? On whose behalf was Peter speaking? The Jews! Could it be made any plainer? It was the sons and daughters of the Jews who would prophesy. It was the Jews young men who would see visions. It was the Jews old men who would dream dreams. The thing promised to the Gentiles here is in the next verse, "and on My servants and on my handmaidens I will pour out in those days of My Spirit and they shall prophesy."Now you asked "why make special mention of both men and women when he has already stated that both "sons and daughters will prophesy?" Sister, ask the Lord. It is His Word. It is not mine or yours or anyone elses. The Lord said what He meant and meant what He said, and it is not ours to question it, but rather to believe it. And Peter was still plainly addressing the Jews in the whole context. People can deny it, and attempt to explain it away, and when they get through, the Word will just keep right on saying what it says.Now this is why I pay far more attention to the dreams and visions of Christian Jews than I will ever pay to the claim of any Gentile, lost or saved. If that offends any one, take up your problem with the Lord. I didn't write the Word. I just believe it as He gave it, and try to share it with others.On that note, I would add that the word translated as "prophesy" in verses 17-18, primarily means, "to proclaim or expound the Word given by the Lord." See Strong's No. 4395. Look it up for yourself. Sometimes it is used for special revelation such as dreams and visions, but more often it is used in the sense of taking the inspired Word already given to us and sharing, proclaiming, expounding, and preaching it to others. And yes, I wholeheartedly agree that "the testimony of Jesus is the Spirit of prophecy." It is precisely because I am a child of God that I see the need [the desperate need] of sharing the great prophecies of God's Word with others, and warning them "to flee from the wrath to come." I will continue to do so as long as the Lord grants me the breath of life. But I purposed in my heart long ago to share it correctly, and that means "rightly divided."Sister, I am glad that you are a Jew, for I certainly love the Jewish people and want to see them saved. My Savior was a Jew. I am even more glad to find out that you are a "spiritual Jew." That is a Jew by nature, that by the grace of God, has been saved. Praise the Lord! I'm just a Gentile by nature, but by the grace of God, I too have come to know the Lord. And by His marvelous grace, I have been "adopted" into "the commonwealth of Israel." That still doesn't make me a Jew, but it sure does "spiritually" place me in the same family as that of my Jewish brothers and sisters who have been saved. From the depths of my very soul I can now proclaim with Ruth of old, "Entreat me not to leave thee, or to return from following after thee: for whither thou goest, I will go; and where thou lodgest, I will lodge: thy people shall be my people, and thy God my God," Ruth 1:16.Sister, I hope this will answer some of your questions. [Maybe it will just provoke more]. I thank you for asking. I love to drink deeply of the Word and share it with others. Thank you for the opportunity. When you go to the throne of grace, please remember to pray for me. God bless you.Pastor F. M. Riley