Yesterday at http://www.fivedoves.com/letters/jan2012/johnb123.htm, John B said the false messiah would not rule for exactly 42 months because of an interpretation based on the word "THEN" being present in the particular English translation he was reading. Let me discourage anyone from drawing too much of a conclusion based on what is inferred from English grammar. Grammar is the least likely thing to translate well from one language to another, and is often highly interpretted. It is also not consistent from one translation to another. Let me demonstrate by giving SEVERAL translations by quoting Rev 13:5-6 from several translations
- "The beast was given a mouth to utter proud words and blasphemies and to exercise its authority for forty-two months. 6 It opened its mouth to blaspheme God" (NIV)
- "5And there was given unto him a mouth speaking great things and blasphemies; and power was given unto him to continue forty and two months. 6And he opened his mouth in blasphemy against God" (KJV, with YLT, ASV, NASB and Amplified ansl ousing "And...And..." structure)
- "5 And the beast was given a mouth uttering haughty and blasphemous words, and it was allowed to exercise authority for forty-two months. 6 It opened its mouth to utter blasphemies against God" (ESV)
I can't find a translation that uses "THEN" at the opening of verse 6. So I'm wondering what translation he quoted from and why would you draw any conclusions from it's minority reading when so many other translations render it differently?
The Greek starts off verses 5, 6 and 7 with "και", which is best translated exactly like the KJV, YLT, ASV, NASB and Amplified all agreed on.