Jovial (11 Feb 2006)
"Dan 9:27"

Earlier, someone asked two questions...

"First, notice three different readings in my possession of the third (last) clause:
1) And for the overspreading of abominations...
2) And on the wings of abominations....
3) And on the wing of the temple.... "

Either of the first two is OK. In Hebrew, it reads, "KaNuF ShiQuTsiYM", which is "the wing / corner/ out edge / etc of abominations." "Temple" sounds like an interpretated paraphrase. The 2nd question was...

"Has anyone who knows Hebrew actually gone back to examine the "he" of v.27 to see if there is some sort of distinction readily apparent in the text, similar to how we capitalize He in reference to Deity, and a small h in he for ordinary humans? "

Hebrew does not distinguish between "He" and "he", nor do most languages. I don't know if English is the only language that does it, but it is rather peculiar to English. In fact, in Hebrew, a word equating to "he" doesn't even appear in the sentence. Hebrew doesn't always need it like English does. We can tell its "he" and not "she" or "they" because of the grammar of the verb, which is different for a "he" than it is for "she" or "they", etc.

Where it says "he shall confirm a covenant...", the Hebrew word here is "higbeer", which means to strengthen or make strong. In other words, he's not just passively OK'ing it, but giving it forceful power it did not have before.

Shalom,

Joe
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