Gino (1 Dec 2019)
"RE: Bill A: 11.24.19: King James Bible"


Bill,
That defence and declaration was very powerful.

Zephaniah 3:8 Therefore wait ye upon me, saith the LORD, until the day that I rise up to the prey: for my determination is to gather the nations, that I may assemble the kingdoms, to pour upon them mine indignation, even all my fierce anger: for all the earth shall be devoured with the fire of my jealousy.
  9 For then will I turn to the people a pure language, that they may all call upon the name of the LORD, to serve him with one consent.

Is line 8 speaking of the battle of Armageddon?
If so, then only "after" that, in line 9, will he turn to the people a pure language, correct?
So, what they are now speaking in Israel, is not the pure language?
Ben Yehuda is called the father of the language now spoken in the land, but with Zephaniah 3:8-9, it is not the pure language, yet?
Are there not some who would try to say that the people in line 9 are the Gentiles, instead of the children of Israel?

Are there not also some who say that the name Jehovah, written in the scriptures is not correct?
Do they not try and say that there is a difference in how the name is pronounced?
How would they know for sure?
Even when all Israel lived in the land, some tribes pronounced some things with a difference ?

Judges 12:6 Then said they unto him, Say now Shibboleth: and he said Sibboleth: for he could not frame to pronounce it right. Then they took him, and slew him at the passages of Jordan: and there fell at that time of the Ephraimites forty and two thousand.

So, over nineteen hundred years where the people were out of their land,
Gentile doctors of ancient dead languages, instead say that they alone know how to pronounce things right?