Jovial (27 Dec 2011)
"Errors in the King James"

The King James says every man on planet earth has heard the Gospel! Note that it says...

"For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men" (Titus 2:11. KJV)

although a correct reading is...

"For the grace of God that bringeth salvation to all men hath appeared " (Titus 2:11)

But don't expect too many KJV-Only folks to admit that there's an error in the KJV just because...the plain black and white of the text makes it undeniable. No...if their ideas where based on reality, they wouldn't believe the KJV is error free. You have to throw facts, logic and reason out the window to buy into the KJV Only philosophy and accept as a principle of faith, that no matter how much someone shows you an error, you still must look at it and claim it's not an error for no reason other than the fact that the King James cannot be wrong. The main reason for this was that the KJV translators did not convert the word order into English word order, but stuck with the word ordering in the Greek, even though that word ordering implies something different in English than it did in Greek.

 

One obvious problem in the KJV must be....

"Therefore leaving the principles of the doctrine of Christ, let us go on unto perfect..." (Heb 6:1)

This sounds like apostacy is the only way we can become perfect! Now even in the 1611 KJV, the translators footnoted that this text was problematic. So I won't go into any detail criticizing the KJV on this verse. but I cite it to point out the fact that even the KJV translators realized there was problems with their own translation!!!

 

Also, the King James says we're all omniscent!!! Note the following versions:

  • "ye know all things" (1 John 2:20, KJV from Greek Byzantine NT)   
  • "ye all know" (1 John 2:20 in a small minority (4) of Greek manuscripts) 
  • "ye seperate/distinguish between all men" (1 Yoch 2:20, Peshitta)

Now according to the KJV, we are all omniscent! In fact, if you literally believe what is written, the logical conclusion would be we know more than Yeshua since the Greek Gospels record Him as saying he didn't know when He would return to earth.  But according to the Greek 1 John 2:20, we're omniscent!  The King James says so!   That of course, disagrees with common sense.  We learn things every day, thus, one thing we know is that we don't know everything, because we're constantly learning things we did not know the day before.  Now NA (Nestle-Aland) lists 4 Greek MSS that read "ye all know", but that's 4 out of about 18 MSS that I know of extant for 1 John. The Aramaic version reads much different, but even sticking with Greek manuscripts, King James' crowd could have recognized that there HAD to be another way to word this one!

 

Worse yet, the KJV doesn't seem to think God can do everything. Heb 9:5 reads like this ....

  • ...peri wn ouk estin nun legein kata meros" =
    "...concerning which it is not now to speak in detail.", probably meaning to imply
    "...concerning which it is not now [the time] to speak in detail." (Greek Heb 9:5)
  • "...we cannot now speak particularly." (KJV, Heb 9:5)

Note the difference.  The KJV says it is impossible to say anymore, but the Greek text that the KJV was allegedly translated from says nothing like this! The Greek text merely suggests it is not proper time to go into more detail than what has been described.  But the KJV says it is not POSSIBLE to go into more detail!!!!  What is this "...we cannot now speak?"  I mean, you could if you wanted to.  The Torah does it. Exodus and Leviticus go into great detail, and you could copy that word-for-word and thereby go into more detail without even thinking much about it.  I mean, it is POSSBILE, thus saying "we CANNOT" is simply erroneous.   It's bad enough that the KJV translators decided to act as "Bible Correctors", but here, it is obvious that there "correction" was not a correction, but introduced error into the text.

 

And of course, the writing of Heb 9:5 is understood to be Divinely inspired. Is it not possible for an infinite God to say more than Heb 9 says?

 

Gal 4:4 says Yeshua was "made of a woman" while the Greek text says he "having come of a woman". Someone might use this verse to suggest that He was a created being, but that is simply not true.

 

Luke 14:10 says men are to be "worshipped", but the Greek text merely reads "glory" here. According to the KJV, men are to be worshipped! And in 1 Chron 29:20 the KJV has Israel worshipping both G-d and David at the same time, reading "And all the congregation blessed the LORD God of their fathers, and bowed down their heads, and worshipped the LORD, and the king." when a more correct reading would be "And all the assembly blessed YHWH , G-d of their fathers and bowed (their heads) and bowed (their bodies) to YHWH and to the king."

 

In Heb 9:26, the KJV tells us the end of the world has already come!

 

John 8:51 in the KJV says "If a man keep my saying, he shall never see death", while the Greek text actually says "...he shall not see death forever." The KJV says the man will not die. The Greek text doesn't say he won't die, just that he won't be dead forever. John 11:26 contains the same error again.

 

In James 5:11 the KJV says, "The Lord is very pitiful."

 

According to the King James, Yeshua doesn't care about anyone. Matt 22:16 in the King James reads, "we know that thou art true, and teachest the way of God in truth, neither carest thou for any [man]: for thou regardest not the person of men." Sounds like Yeshua could care less about people reading this! The second half really says something closer to this, "...for you do not look to the faces of men." The KJV Bible correctors changed "look" to "regardest" and "faces" to "persons", giving us a very different impression of what was said than what appears in the Greek text it was allegedly translated form. The problems with the first half are still problematic in Greek, but are fixed when we go back to the Hebrew text the Greek was translated from. The Hebrew text says, "there is no special-interest of any man upon You" instead of "you don't care about anyone."

 

Philippians 3:20 in the KJV says, "Our conversation is in heaven."

 

In James 3:2, the KJV says we offend every-body. "In many things we offend all."

 

Ps 68:17 talks about "angels" in the KJV even though the Hebrew word for "angel" does not appear anywhere in the Hebrew text.


In Gal 1:23, it says Paul "destroyed" the faith.  Well he tried to before God got hold of him on the way to Damascus.  But no, he did not destroy the faith.