You hit the nail on the head
when you characterized Ice's interpretation of
'apostasia' as most
the rapture event or our 'departure'. Most
probably means there is some reasonable doubt
in his mind, as to that being the absolute
interpretation. Quoting the first sentence in his
the Rapture in 2 Thessalonians 2:3?', he
states, 'I believe that there is a strong
possibility that 2 Thessalonians 2:3 is
speaking of the rapture.' By his own admission then,
he does not say conclusively that the Greek noun
used, either interpreted as: departure, apostasy or
'falling away' is referring to the rapture.
Ice correctly cites Acts 21:21
as the ONE other Biblical passage in which the Greek
noun 'apostasia' is used, which is in reference to the
Jews FORSAKING the religion of Moses, ie.
APOSTASY. However instead of allowing the Bible to
interpret the Bible, in the article, Ice agrees with
the noun is used only one other time in the New
Testament of apostasy from Moses (Acts
21:21), we can hardly conclude that its Biblical
meaning is necessarily determined".
I would conclude that the
opposite is the case. If the Lord sought fit to use
a particular word only twice in the Bible, he
wouldn't intend that word to have two COMPLETELY
different meanings. God is NOT the Author of
Confusion. By changing the 'apostasy' into
'rapture' can only cause CONFUSION. Apostasy =
Apostasy, whether it an event of forsaking Moses' religion or forsaking
the New Testament Gospel. Ice also cites the same
Liddell & Scott Greek Lexicon that I did in which the
FIRST DEFINITION OF APOSTASIA is a DEFECTION or REVOLT
and the second is a 'departure', still a
forsaking of a certain position or truth.
Supposing for a moment, the Holy
Spirit through Paul's pen intended "departure".
He coupled it with the revealing of the 'man of sin' in
the same sentence. Ice suggests that the word
apostasia doesn't infer a departure from the faith, as
'pistis' (faith) does not follow the apostasia.
While 'pistis' may not be present, NIETHER IS 'harpazo',
yet he insists this is what the departure is
referring to, that is the catching away 'rapture'.
In the context of the SAME
sentence, a general DEFECTION from true Christianity and
the Revealing of the AntiChrist go HAND in
HAND. 1 Timothy 4 describes the eventual
'departing from the faith' in the latter times. A
world that is predominantly HERETICAL is the world in
which thee antichrist can come to power.
He can fool even the elect if it were possible. The
mystery of iniquity had infected the church even back
then. Now it is even greater. While Obama may
or may not be thee antichrist, he is a prime
example. He is for certain an
antichrist. An avowed abortion supporter,
mocker of the Bible and supporter of homosexual
(special) rights, Obama came to power proclaiming his own
Christianity (though false) and with voter support from a majority of
so-called 'Christian' churches. A 'falling away' as
the KJV interprets it, is the exact sort of gateway by
which antichrists (such as Hitler) pass to
Moreover, by the second
definition, 'departure', could also refer to
the removal of that which
is now standing in the midst, as departing from the stop gap
between the antichrist and the power he desires.
KJV - For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who
now letteth [will let], until he be taken out of the
Only he who restrains [will
restrain](G2722), until he be taken out of the way
('middle' as per G3319). Just as the Spartans
stood in the midst of the pass at Thermopylae
restraining the Persians, so does the Lord restrain.
Whether it is by His Spirit or His Archangel
Michael or Gabriel, God restrains the antichrist as
long as it pleases him to do so. When the
restrainer DEPARTS from the MIDST, then
shall the antichrist be revealed. When God or his
angels forsakes that position,
the antichrist will go in.
KJV - And then shall that Wicked be revealed,
whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth,
and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming:
For your consideration.