Dear friend,

Yes, I think I can, and I can also tell you how to find the answers to some questions in God's Word that seem to bother a lot of God's people. Let's do the last one first.

I will tell you that I love to study God's Word. The Word itself says that ".....much study is a weariness of the flesh," Ecclesiastes 12:12. But the Word of God also tells God's people to "Study to show thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the Word of truth," 2 Timothy 2:15. Many years ago I came across both of these verses as I was reading through God's Word. I knew then that I had to make a decision. Did I want the truth, the whole truth, and nothing but the truth of God's Word, or did I want to preserve my "flesh" from the weariness that comes from hours, or even days, of intense study? I made up my mind right then, that I would gladly "sacrifice" my flesh in order to know more about my wonderful Lord and His wonderful Word, Romans 12:1-2. Having made that decision I earnestly prayed for God's direction in how to get the very most out of His Word when I studied, and my Lord graciously directed me to "word studies." Dear friend, if you want the most knowledge and insight into a word or subject in God's Word, then do a "word study."

Doing "word studies" may take just a few minutes, depending on how many times a certain word occurs in the Bible. Or, it may take many long hours or even days, again depending on how many times a certain word occurs in the Bible. I can tell you now, that such studies are not for the lazy or the complacent. In doing "word studies," I take a certain word that represents the subject I want to pursue, and first look up the Hebrew or Greek word from which that English word is translated by using a good concordance or Lexicon. Once I have found the Hebrew or Greek word, then I locate every Scripture in the Bible where that word is used. I usually take a notebook and jot down every Scripture reference in order throughout the Old Testament or the New Testament. Once I have every single Scripture jotted down where a word occurs, then I start looking up those Scriptures in my Bible to see how the word is used, what time element is under consideration in the various places the word is used, and what the context is about where the word is being used. When I get through with such "word studies" I know exactly what the word means because I know exactly how it is used in the Scriptures, where it is used, and why it is used. Let me give you an example.....

When I go to a "commentary" looking for some enlightenment on the word "kingdom," the average commentator has a particular definition of the word, usually based on some verse in God's Word where the word "kingdom" is used in some particular manner. The commentator will then apply that meaning every place in the Bible where he finds the word "kingdom." Sad! This is shallow Bible study, even if it does occur in some high priced, highly praised [over rated] set of commentaries. It is needless to say, I depend very little on what I find in most "commentaries" for my knowledge of God's Word. I have actually done a "word study" on the word "kingdom" every single place it occurs in God's Word. In doing so, I found that the word "kingdom," in referring to any part of God's kingdom, is used five different ways in the Bible [has five different applications] , a fact that a person would never discern without doing a "word study." I hope you understand what I mean in telling you this.

Your question about "the day of the Lord" works exactly the same way. I have looked up every single reference to "the day of the Lord" in God's Word, both in the Old Testament and the New Testament. Therefore, I can tell you that the normal meaning of this expression refers to the entire seven year Tribulation period. But not always!

The expression is also found with various nuances. It is sometimes stated as "the great and terrible day of the Lord," or, "the great and dreadful day of the Lord," or, "the great day of the Lord," or, "that dreadful day of the Lord," or, "the fearful day of the Lord." The Scriptures also sometimes say that it is "at hand," sometimes that "it cometh," and sometimes that it is "far off." Each of these nuances gives the expression a slightly different shade of meaning. If you want to understand the expression properly, then you have to take these nuances into consideration. That is why the context is so important.

I can also tell you that a few times the expression is limited to the exact 24 hour day that the Lord is returning at the end of the Tribulation. But not often! Some prophecy students have made the same mistake some of the "commentators" make, by limiting it to one certain day in every place it occurs in God's Word, and it won't work that way in every place it is used. I know this to be so, because in a few places in God's Word "the day of the Lord" actually refers to the Millennial Kingdom which follows the Tribulation. See what I mean?

Now in answer to your question, there is no exact way that the expression is used in God's Word, except as determined by the context. This is why the context of any passage is so very important.

As for Joel 2:31, the expression, based on the context and the nuances, is obviously referring to the last half of the Tribulation.

It is the last half of the Trib that is explicitly called "the hour of His judgment," Revelation 14:7, and the time of "the wrath of God," Revelation 14:10; 15:1; 15:7; 16:1. The last half of the Trib is also when Almighty God Himself does "His work, His strange work; and bring to pass His act, His strange act," Isaiah 28:21. The word translated as "strange" in this verse literally means, "foreign to one's nature; not the normal act or nature of a being." In other words, in the last half of the Tribulation, Almighty God; God the Father, is going to do a work that is totally foreign to His own nature. Remember that the Scripture explicitly says that "God is love," 1 John 4:8. The very essence of God Himself; our Father in Heaven, is LOVE. All true [agape] love flows forth from our Father in Heaven. But during the last half of the Tribulation, Satan and the Antichrist, and their followers, are going to be in such a state of wicked rebellion against the Lord, that the Father Himself will say to His Son, "Sit Thou at My right hand, until I make Thine enemies Thy footstool," Psalm 110:1. That last half of the Tribulation will be a time of God's wrath poured out upon the wicked, such as men upon the earth have never previously seen or even imagined. Notice in Revelation 15:8 that the anger of God Himself is so great during the last half of the Tribulation that the very Temple of God in Heaven is filled with smoke from His wrath.

It is then "before" the last half of the Tribulation that "The sun shall be turned into darkness, and the moon into blood; before the great and the terrible day of the Lord come," Joel 2:31. This places the fulfillment of this prophecy right smack in the first half of the Tribulation, exactly where Revelation 6:12-17 says that it will occur. The fulfillment of Joel 2:31 has nothing to do with this present "dispensation of grace," and the Scriptures point that out quite clearly for those who will seriously study them.

What is to be fulfilled during this present "dispensation of grace" is the prophecy given by Peter in Acts 2:17-21. These two prophecies are not the same prophecy, and I couldn't care less how many of God's people want to argue about it, or what some "commentary" says about it. I have a Bible study in print demonstrating from the Scriptures that the two prophecies are not the same prophecy, which I will be glad to send to you or anyone else that would like to read it. Just let me know.

It is obvious that the first part of Peter's prophecy in Acts 2:17-19 has been, and continues to be, fulfilled in the "last days," 2:17 [Hebrews 1:1-2] of this present dispensation, but when was verse 20 fulfilled? I do not believe this is referring to "eclipses," as some want to "interpret" it. Rather, I think it means precisely what it says; the sun being turned into total darkness for a period of time [perhaps three days] and at night the moon, through the thick clouds or smoke or vapor or whatever the Lord is going to use, becoming totally blood red for the same period of time. In all of past history, I cannot find any such fulfillment that has occurred. Yet, since the rest of Peter's prophecy has occurred during this present dispensation, or is occurring, then when is this going to occur? Notice that Peter explicitly says that it will occur before "that great and notable day of the Lord come." The word translated as "notable" in this verse simply means, "a notable day; a day to be noticed; a day of note." In other words, it is simply referring to the coming Tribulation. Period! It in no way carries the same meaning as the word "terrible" in Joel 2:31. The two passages are talking about two different time periods. Peter is referring to the whole Tribulation, and Joel is referring to the last half of it.

I hope this gives you the answers you are looking for, as well as stirs you to a deeper and more thorough study of God's Word. If you have more questions, or need my help, I'll be glad to help in any way I can. I love God's Word and God's people, and have a fervent desire for God's people to know the truth of the Word.

Thank you for writing. I'll meet you soon in glory. God bless you. Pray for me.

Pastor F. M. Riley